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200-201 Dumps 2024 | Cisco 200-201 CBROPS Exam Strategy

200-201 CBROPS 2024

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Cisco 200-201 exam 2024, What you should know

The Cisco 200-201 exam 2024, also known as the CCNA (Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate) certification exam, is one of the CyberOps Associate certification exams offered by Cisco. This exam is designed to understand official Cisco training
Learn about Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS).

Specifically, Cisco exam 200-201 2024 relative to 2023,2022 covers several key areas including Security Concepts, Security Monitoring, Host-Based Analysis, Network Intrusion Analysis,
Security Policies and Procedures.

The Cisco 200-201 exam is a good starting point for entering the networking industry, and earning the 200-201 certification will be an important milestone for anyone looking to advance their career in the networking field.


Let’s start with the 200-201 CBROPS exam

After completing the 200-201 CBROPS exam, you will earn the Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate certification. The exam consists of 95 to 105 questions, and you have 120 minutes to answer. After passing the exam, you will be eligible for entry-level jobs related to network administrators.

At this point, you must be thinking, how do I pass the 200-201 exam?

Let’s share some free 200-201 dumps practice questions to help you learn

Continue with the last free 200-201 (Q1-Q12) exam questions, and continue to share Q13-Q27:

Question 13:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the technology on the left onto the data type the technology provides on the right.

Select and Place:

free 200-201 dumps practice questions 13

Correct Answer:

free 200-201 dumps practice questions 13-2

Question 14:

Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?

A. integrity

B. confidentiality

C. availability

D. scope

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

Why is encryption challenging to security monitoring?

A. Encryption analysis is used by attackers to monitor VPN tunnels.

B. Encryption is used by threat actors as a method of evasion and obfuscation.

C. Encryption introduces additional processing requirements by the CPU.

D. Encryption introduces larger packet sizes to analyze and store.

Correct Answer: B

Question 16:

A security engineer has a video of a suspect entering a data center that was captured on the same day that files in the same data center were transferred to a competitor. Which type of evidence is this?

A. best evidence

B. prima facie evidence

C. indirect evidence

D. physical evidence

Correct Answer: C

There are three general types of evidence:

–> Best evidence: can be presented in court in the original form (for example, an exact copy of a hard disk drive).

–> Corroborating evidence: tends to support a theory or an assumption deduced by some initial evidence. This corroborating evidence confirms the proposition. –> Indirect or circumstantial evidence: extrapolation to a conclusion of fact (such as fingerprints, DNA evidence, and so on).

Question 17:

What is the difference between an inline and a tap mode traffic monitoring?

A. Inline monitors traffic without examining other devices, while a tap mode tags traffic and examines the data from monitoring devices.

B. Tap mode monitors traffic direction, while inline mode keeps packet data as it passes through the monitoring devices.

C. Tap mode monitors packets and their content with the highest speed, while the inline mode draws a packet path for analysis.

D. Inline mode monitors traffic path, examining any traffic at a wire speed, while tap mode monitors traffic as it crosses the network.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/650/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v65/inline_sets_and_passive_interfaces_for_firepower_threat_defense.html


Question 18:

Which event is user interaction?

A. gaining root access

B. executing remote code

C. reading and writing file permission

D. opening a malicious file

Correct Answer: D

Question 19:

Which evasion technique is indicated when an intrusion detection system begins receiving an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources?

A. resource exhaustion

B. tunneling

C. traffic fragmentation

D. timing attack

Correct Answer: A

Resource exhaustion is a type of denial-of-service attack; however, it can also be used to evade detection by security defenses. A simple definition of resource exhaustion is “consuming the resources necessary to act.” Cisco CyberOps Associate CBROPS 200-201 Official Cert Guide

Question 20:

What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?

A. A collection of rules within the sandbox that prevent communication between sandboxes.

B. A collection of network services that are activated on an interface, allowing for inter-port communication.

C. A collection of interfaces that allow for coordination of activities among processes.

D. A collection of host services that allow for communication between sandboxes.

Correct Answer: C

Inter-process communication (IPC) allows communication between different processes. A process is one or more threads running inside its own, isolated address space. https://docs.legato.io/16_10/basicIPC.html


Question 21:

Refer to the exhibit.

free 200-201 dumps practice questions 21

What is occurring?

A. Cross-site scripting attack

B. XML External Entitles attack

C. Insecure Deserialization

D. Regular GET requests

Correct Answer: B

Question 22:

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positives?

A. True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them.

B. True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless.

C. False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately.

D. False positive alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged.

Correct Answer: C

Question 23:

Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack?

A. detection and analysis

B. post-incident activity

C. preparation

D. containment, eradication, and recovery

Correct Answer: D

3.3.3 Identifying the Attacking Hosts During incident handling, system owners and others sometimes want to or need to identify the attacking host or hosts. Although this information can be important, incident handlers should generally stay

focused on containment, eradication, and recovery.

https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-61r2.pdf

The response phase, or containment, of incident response, is the point at which the incident response team begins interacting with affected systems and attempts to keep further damage from occurring as a result of the incident.

Question 24:

A company\’s cyber security team performed a phishing simulation campaign for employees and performed security awareness training to affected personnel. According to NIST.SP800-61, at which phase of incident response is this action?

A. post-incident activity phase

B. detection and analysis phase

C. preparation phase

D. eradication and recovery phase

Correct Answer: C

Question 25:

Refer to the exhibit.

free 200-201 dumps practice questions 25

What is occurring in this network traffic?

A. High rate of SYN packets being sent from a multiple source towards a single destination IP.

B. High rate of ACK packets being sent from a single source IP towards multiple destination IPs.

C. Flood of ACK packets coming from a single source IP to multiple destination IPs.

D. Flood of SYN packets coming from a single source IP to a single destination IP.

Correct Answer: D

Question 26:

What is the difference between an attack vector and an attack surface?

A. An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation, and an attack vector identifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.

B. An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited, and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.

C. An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack, and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.

D. An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack, and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer: C

Question 27:

Refer to the exhibit.

free 200-201 dumps practice questions 27

Which event is occurring?

A. A binary named “submit” is running on VM cuckoo1.

B. A binary is being submitted to run on VM cuckoo1

C. A binary on VM cuckoo1 is being submitted for evaluation

D. A URL is being evaluated to see if it has a malicious binary

Correct Answer: B\

https://cuckoo.readthedocs.io/en/latest/usage/submit/

More Cisco exam questions…

Want more, more 200-201 study materials?

New 200-201 CBROPS learning materials collation 2024 (with link)

Document:

PDF:

Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals v1.1 (200-201)

Video:

Cisco Certified CyberOps Training Videos

Book:

Cisco CyberOps associate CBROPS 200-201 official cert guide

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