Category: CheckPoint Certification

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QUESTION 108
If a NOC firewall separates the Provider-1 MDS machine and the MDG (as shown below), what would you need to do, to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS?

A. Create a UDP service and rule on the NOC firewall for MDG traffic.
B. Create a specific RPC service and rule on the NOC firewall for MDG traffic.
C. Create a rule on the NOC firewall that allows CPMI traffic to pass from the MDG to the MDS object.
D. Create a rule on the NOC firewall that allows CPD and CPD_amon traffic to pass from the MDG to the MDS object.
E. Select the Accept VPN-1/FireWall-1 control connections option in the Global Properties screen, to allow the MDG traffic to pass through the NOC firewall.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
To configure for CMA redundancy, which of the following would be necessary?
A. Multiple MDS Container machines
B. The CMA High Availability option selected in the CMA properties window
C. Multiple CMAs configured on a single MDS
D. Multiple MDS Manager machines
E. The CMA High Availability option selected in the Customer properties window

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 110
You are attempting to mirror the full functionality of the Primary MDS to the Secondary MDS in your NOC configuration. The MDS mirror procedure will fail in which of the following scenarios?
A. When an MLM is configured on the Secondary MDS
B. When an MLM is configured on the Primary MDS
C. When NOC firewall control connections do not allow mds_stat and mds_push to pass from the Primary
MDS to the Secondary MDS
D. When a CMA on the Secondary MDS uses a virtual IP address included in the range defined on the Primary MDS
E. When a CMA on the Primary MDS uses a virtual IP address included in the range defined on the Secondary MDS

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 111
All modules of Provider-1 communicate using CPMI which allows the MDG to communicate with the MDS. CPMI is a generic open protocol that is incorporated into the OPSEC SDK. This allows third party vendors to develop applications that can be integrated into the Provider-1 configuration, and access and control the MDS. Identify a port used by CPMI use to communicate between Provider-1 modules?

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QUESTION 66
How many CLMs can each MDs MLM hold?
A. 500
B. 50
C. 225
D. 250
E. unlimited

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 67
Can Multiple MDGs connect to a provider-1 system in Read/Write Mode?
A. Yes, only if Administrators connecting through the MDGs have different permission levels
B. Yes, if all connect through MDS Manager Machines
C. Yes, if one MDG is connected to the MDS Manager and the other MDG is connected to a MDG container
D. No, only one MDG at a time can have Read/Write Permissions in the Provider-1 system
E. No, Provider-1 can’t have more than one MDS Manager

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
For which of the following components in a Provider-1 NGX deployment can a SmartCenter server be configured as a backup?
A. Primary MLM backed up by a Secondary CMA
B. CLM
C. Primary CMA backed up by a Secondary CMA
D. MDG
E. MLM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
If services other than the predefined global services are needed:
A. No action can be taken. Administrators can’t create services not predefined in the Global SmartDashboard
B. They must be imported from a preconfigured Global Policy
C. They can be created by editing a default service already included in the Global Policy database and saved under a new name
D. They must be imported from a preconfigured CMA Security Policy
E. They can be specifically defined in the Global SmartDashboard
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 70
Which of the following actions is possible from the High Availability view of the MDG?

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QUESTION 86
When you use the Global Properties’ default settings on R76, which type of traffic will be dropped if NO explicit rule allows the traffic?
A. Firewall logging and ICA key-exchange information
B. RIP traffic
C. Outgoing traffic originating from the Security Gateway
D. SmartUpdate connections

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 87
You have installed a R76 Security Gateway on GAiA. To manage the Gateway from the enterprise Security Management Server, you create a new Gateway object and Security Policy. When you install the new Policy from the Policy menu, the Gateway object does not appear in the Install Policy window as a target. What is the problem?
A. The new Gateway’s temporary license has expired.
B. The object was created with Node > Gateway.
C. The Gateway object is not specified in the first policy rule column Install On.
D. No Masters file is created for the new Gateway.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
Certificates for Security Gateways are created during a simple initialization from .
A. The ICA management tool
B. SmartUpdate
C. sysconfig
D. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?
A. Run cpconfig, and click Reset.
B. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig and type a new activation key.
C. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.
D. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 90
You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second SecurePlatform computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?
A. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
B. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1

C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
Although SIC was already established and running, Joe reset SIC between the Security Management Server and a remote Gateway. He set a new activation key on the Gateway’s

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QUESTION 52
Distinguish between the role of the data owner and the role of the data custodian. Complete the following sentence. The data owner is the:
A. department in the organization responsible for the data’s physical storage location. The data custodian is anyone who has access the data for any reason.
B. person or entity who accesses/and or manipulates data or information, in the course of assigned duties. The data custodian is a person or process with the appropriate level of privilege to access the data.
C. person or entity ultimately responsible for the security of an information asset. The data custodian is the person or entity responsible for imposing and enforcing policies and restrictions, dictated by the data owner.
D. person or process that originally creates the information. The data custodian is a role that shifts to any person or process currently accessing the data, and passes to the next person or process to access the data.
E. person or entity responsible for imposing and enforcing policies and restrictions, dictated by the functional user. The data custodian is a person or process who accesses and/or manipulates the information.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
You are considering purchasing a VPN solution to protect your organization’s information assets. The solution you are reviewing uses RFC-compliant and open-standards encryption schemes. The vendor has submitted the system to a variety of recognized testing authorities. The vendor does not make the source code available to testing authorities. Does this solution adhere to the secure design principle of open design?
A. No, because the software vendor could have changed the code after testing, which is not verifiable.
B. No, because the software vendor submitted the software to testing authorities only, and did not make the software available to the public for testing.

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QUESTION 65
Which of the following is NOT a concern for enterprise physical security?
A. Network Intrusion Detection Systems
B. Social engineering
C. Dumpster diving
D. Property theft
E. Unauthorized access to a facility
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
Which of the following should be included in an enterprise Business Continuity Plan (BCP)? (Choose THREE.)
A. Accidental or intentional data deletion
B. Severe weather disasters
C. Employee terminations
D. Employee administrative leave
E. Minor power outages

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 67
Which type of access management uses information about job duties and positions, to indicate subjects’ clearance levels?
A. Discretionary
B. Role-based
C. Nondiscretionary
D. Hybrid
E. Mandatory

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
When attempting to identify OPSEC indicators, information-security professionals must: (Choose THREE.)
A. Discover the information daily activities yield.
B. Meet with adversaries.
C. Perform business impact analysis surveys.
D. Scrutinize their organizations’ daily activities.
E. Analyze indicators, to determine the information an adversary can glean ?both from routine and nonroutine activities.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 69
Which of the following can be stored on a workstation? (Choose TWO.)
A. Payroll information
B. Data objects used by many employees
C. Databases
D. Interoffice memo
E. Customer correspondence
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 70
How is bogus information disseminated?

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QUESTION 46
Embedding symbols in images or common items, such as pictures or quilts, is an example of __________.
A. Espionage
B. Transposition cipher
C. Key exchange
D. Arithmancy
E. Steganography
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 47
Why should each system user and administrator have individual accounts? (Choose TWO.)
A. Using generic user names and passwords increases system security and reliability.
B. Using separate accounts for each user reduces resource consumption, particularly disk space.
C. By using individual login names and passwords, user actions can be traced.
D. If users do not have individual login names, processes can automatically run with root/administrator access.
E. A generic user name and password for users and security administrators provides anonymity, which prevents useful logging and auditing.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 48
A(n) _______ occurs when intrusion-detection measures fail to recognize suspicious traffic or activity.
A. False positive
B. False negative
C. CIFS pop-up
D. Threshold
E. Alarm

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
What is single sign-on? An authentication method:
A. that allows users to authenticate once, and then uses tokens or other credentials to manage subsequent authentication attempts
B. that stores user credentials locally, so that users need only authenticate the first time, a local machine is used
C. requiring the use of one-time passwords, so users authenticate only once, with a given set of credentials.

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QUESTION 55
A digital signature:
A. Automatically changes shared keys.
B. Uniquely encodes the receiver of the key.
C. Provides a secure key-exchange mechanism over the Internet.
D. Guarantees the authenticity of a message.
E. Decrypts data to its original form.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Dr bill is a Security Administrator who must define a new user for SecuRemote access to his VPN-1/ FireWall-1 VPN Domain. Dr bill has an established Remote Access VPN community for existing SecuRemote users. Dr bill creates a new user and populates the Login Name field. He then saves and installs the Security Policy. When Dr bill attempts a SecuRemote connection using the newly created user, the connection fails. Which of the following is the BEST explanation for the failure?
A. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module does not have a valid license for the new SecuRemote user.
B. Dr bill did not configure Time properties for the new user. New users are restricted to No Time.
C. Dr bill did not define an authentication method or generate a certificate for the new user.
D. The new user was not placed in a group. The All Users group cannot be used for SecuRemote access.
E. Dr bill did not configure the user’s locations. The Any location is not a valid option for SecuRemote users.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Dr bill wants to configure a custom script to launch an application for certain rules. Which of the following should Dr bill configure?
A. SNMP Trap Alert Script
B. Custom scripts cannot be executed through Alert Scripts.
C. Mail Alert Script
D. User-Defined Alert Script
E. Popup Alert Script

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Assume an intruder has succeeded in compromising your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys. Which of the following will end the intruder’s

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QUESTION 87
Which of the following statements accurately describes the upgrade_export command?
A. Upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be included before exporting.
B. Used when upgrading the Security Gateway, upgrade_export includes modified files directory.
C. Upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the data base revisions prior to upgrading the security Management Server.
D. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server. Upgrade_export stores all object database and the conf directions for importing to a newer version of the Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security gateway?
A. Install the View Implicit Rules package using SmartUpdate.
B. In Global Properties / Reporting Tools check the box Enable tracking all rules (including rules marked as none in the track column). Send these logs to a secondary log server for a complete logging history. Use your normal log server for standard logging for troubleshooting.
C. Check the Log Implied Rules Globally box on the R71 Gateway object.
D. Define two log servers on the R71 Gateway object. Enable Log Implied Rules on the first log server. Enable log rule Base on the second log server. Use Smart Reporter to merge the two log server records into the same database for HIPPA log audits.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
From the output below, where is the fingerprint generated? ActualTests.com
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A. SmartUpdate
B. Security Management Server
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartConsole

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
Which of the following statements BEST describesCheck Point’s

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QUESTION 72
During the installation process of an MDS MLM, the MLM should be configured as a:
A. MDS Container.
B. Primary MLM.
C. VPN-1 NGX Management Server.
D. Comprehensive log server.
E. Primary MDS.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
The General view is the only view in which an Administrator can:
A. Assign a Global Policy to a Customer.
B. View statistics on a remote Security Gateway’s performance.
C. Reboot a remote workstation.
D. Edit the CMA and MDS objects.
E. Execute custom commands.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
When you install a Global Policy on a remote Security Gateway, where can you place the Global Rules within a CMA’s existing Policy?
A. At any point in the CMA Rule Base as defined in the Global Policy SmartDashboard.
B. In the middle of CMA-specific rules.
C. In the implied rules.
D. After CMA-specific rules.
E. In the Stealth rules.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
You are the Provider-1 Administrator for an MSP. You work from home and the MDG is at a remote location NOT inside the NOC. You need the ability to connect from the MDG to the MDS machine protected by the NOC firewall. Consider the NOC firewall Rule Base displayed below. Will this Rule Base allow you remote MDG access to the MDS, and allow the CMAs on the MDS to control the remote Security Gateways?

A. No, the NOC firewall Rule Base should not contain a Stealth Rule.
B. Yes, the Rule Base meets all of the requirements for the scenario presented.
C. No, the Rule Base does not allow the CMAs loaded on the MDS to connect to the remote Gateways.
D. No, the MDG-to-MDS Rule does not have the necessary service to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS.
E. No, the group object representing the CMAs should be in the destination field of the MDG-to-MDS Rule. The MDG can only connect to the individual CMAsloaded on the MDS Container.

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