Category: CheckPoint Certification
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QUESTION 47
When creating a CMA, is it necessary to license the CMA and the MDS?
A. Yes, but only if you configuring CMA-level High Availability
B. No, the MDS license includes the CMA licenses
C. Yes, but only if the CMA is installed on an MDS Manager machine without an MDS container
D. Yes, but only if the MDS is not licensed
E. Yes, each CMA requires its own license, in addition to the MDS license
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 48
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning Provider-1?
A. The MDS Manager functions as a firewall for the Provider-1 system, protecting the MDS Containers
B. The provider-1 environment should be protected by its own CMA
C. The added security of a firewall to protect the Provider-1 system provides a greater level of security, but is not recommended, due to the complicated security policies that would be necessary
D. All traffic between Provider-1 modules is encrypted, no firewall is necessary to protect the Provider-1 system
E. The Provider-1 environment should be protected by a separately managed firewall
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
To configure for CMA redundancy, which of the following would be necessary?
A. Multiple MDS Manager Machines
B. Multiple MDS container machines
C. The CMA High Availability option selected in the customer properties window
D. The CMA high Availability option selected in the CMA properties window
E. Multiple CMAs configured on a single MDS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Which of the following directories are required to migrate an existing VPN-1 NG Management Server into Provider-1 NGX?
A. Conf and database directories
B. Conf state and database directories
C. Conf, bin and lib direcotires
D. Conf, state and PCshared conf directories
E. Conf, CPshared conf and CPshared database directories
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Which command, run from the MDS Manager, will stop a specific CMA?
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QUESTION 71
Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?
A. cpstat – date.cpstat.txt
B. fw cpinfo
C. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt
D. diag
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
A. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.
B. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.
C. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server.
D. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of a SecurePlatform Security Gateway.
Explanation: Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73 How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A. fw delete all.all@localhost
B. fw unload policy
C. fwm unloadlocal
D. fw unloadlocal
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 74
How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?
A. clish -c show routing active enable
B. ipsofwd list
C. cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
Which command allows you to view the contents of an R76 table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>
B. fw tab -t <tablename>
C. fw tab -x <tablename>
D. fw tab -a <tablename>
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R76 configuration report?
A. infoCP
B. cpinfo
C. infoview
D. fw cpinfo
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
Which of the following isa CLI command for Security Gateway R76?
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QUESTION 45
At ABC Corporation, access to critical information resources, such as database and e-mail servers, is controlled by the information-technology (IT) department. The supervisor in the department grants access to printers where the printer is located. Managers grant and revoke rights to files within their departments’ directories on the file server, but the IT department controls who has access to the directories. Which type of access-management system is in use at ABC Corporation?
A. Centralized access management
B. Role-based access management
C. Hybrid access management
D. Decentralized access management
E. Privileged access management
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Embedding symbols in images or common items, such as pictures or quilts, is an example of __________.
A. Espionage
B. Transposition cipher
C. Key exchange
D. Arithmancy
E. Steganography
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 47
Why should each system user and administrator have individual accounts? (Choose TWO.)
A. Using generic user names and passwords increases system security and reliability.
B. Using separate accounts for each user reduces resource consumption, particularly disk space.
C. By using individual login names and passwords, user actions can be traced.
D. If users do not have individual login names, processes can automatically run with root/administrator access.
E. A generic user name and password for users and security administrators provides anonymity, which prevents useful logging and auditing.
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QUESTION 36
Which of these strategies can be employed to test training effectiveness? (Choose THREE.)
A. Create a survey for managers, to see if participants practice behaviors presented during training.
B. Provide feedback forms for employees to rate instruction and training material, immediately after training has ended.
C. Include auditors before and after the training. This checks to see if the number of security-related incidents is reduced, because of the training.
D. Give incentives to employees who attend security-awareness training. Perform spot-checks, to see if incentives are displayed.
E. Test employees on security concepts several months after training has ended.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 37
_________________ is the process of subjects establishing who they are to an access control.
A. Identification
B. Authentication
C. Authorization
D. Validation
E. Biometrics
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Public servers are typically placed in the _______, to enhance security.
A. Restricted Entry Zone
B. Open Zone
C. Internet Zone
D. Demilitarized Zone
E. Public Entry Zone
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
_______ involves gathering pieces of information and drawing a conclusion, whose sensitivity exceeds any of the individual pieces of information.
A. Inference
B. Social engineering
C. Movement analysis
D. Communication-pattern analysis
E. Aggregation
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 40
When should proceduresbe evaluated?
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QUESTION 86
Which of the following conditions will cause Secure Client Verification to report that a SecureClient machine is NOT considered secured? (Choose three)
A. The local.svc file is either corrupt or miconfigured.
B. The SecureClient machine cannot contact the SmartCenter Server.
C. The user has selected Disable from the SecureClient Policy menu.
D. There are expired cookies in the machines TMP directory.
E. There is no SCV policy on the SecureClient machine.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 87
Which component of VPN-1/FireWall-1 is used for Content Security to prevent end-user access to specific URLs?
A. UFP Server
B. TACACS Server
C. URI Server
D. CVP Server
E. DEFENDER Server
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
Which of the following actions does Secure Configuration Verification perform? (Choose three) Secure Configuration Verification confirms that the:
A. Desktop Policy is installed on all client interfaces.
B. TCP/IP is enabled on the desktop.
C. User name and password cached on the desktop are correct.
D. Client’s operating system has the appropriate patch level.
E. IP address of the client is correct for entrance into the VPN Domain.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 89
Dr bill is his organization’s Chief Technology Officer. He is seeking a solution to control the impact if unauthorized software on his corporate network. Dr bill has established the following guidelines for any solution implemented:
1.
Required objective: The solution must not allow access to corporate resources if user’s virus-protection software is not current.
2.
Desired objective: The solution should be able to control protocols enabled on the user’s
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QUESTION 80
Which do you configure to give remote access VPN users a local IP address?
A. Office mode IP pool
B. NAT pool
C. Encryption domain pool
D. Authentication pool
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
You need to plan the company’s new security system. The company needs a very high level of security and also high performance and high through put for their applications. You need to turn on most of the integrated IPS checks while maintain high throughput. What would be the best solution for this scenario?
A. The IPS does not run when Core XL is enabled
B. You need to buy a strong multi-core machine and run R71 or later on Secure Platform with CoreXL technology enabled.
C. The IPS system does not affect the firewall performance and CoreXL is not needed in this scenario.
D. Bad luck, both together can not be achieved.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
Which can an administrator configure the notification action of a policy install time change?
A. SmartView Tracker I Audit Log
B. SmartView Monitor/ Gateways I Thresholds Settings
C. SmartDashboard / Security Gateway Object I Advanced Properties Tail
D. SmartDashboard / Policy Package Manager
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 83
You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R65 to R71. Prior to upgrading, you want to backup the gateway should there be any problems with the upgrade of the following allows for the gateway configuration to be completely backup into a manageable size in the least amount of time?
A. Backup ActualTests.com
B. Snapshot
C. Upgrade_export
D. Database_revision
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 84
Which of the following describes the default behavior of an R71 Security Gateway?
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A. Traffic is filtered using controlled port scanning.
B. All traffic is expressly permitted via explicit rules.
C. Traffic not explicitly permitted is dropped.
D. IP protocol types listed as secure are allowed by default, i.e ICMP, TCP, UDP sessions are inspected.
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QUESTION 45
You have created a new Administrator with the permissions set to NONE.
What type of permissions does this grant the Administrator?
A. The Administrator logged in to the MDG with Read/Write permissions can access all aspects of the Provider-1 configuration, but can only access specifically assigned Customers and CMAs with Read Only permissions.
B. The Administrator is blocked from connecting to the MDG or CMAs. This action can be set for a specified duration of time or an expiration date.
C. The Administrator logged in to the MDG with Read Only permissions can access all aspects of the Provider-1 configuration and specifically assigned Customers and CMAs.
D. The Administrator logged in to the MDG with Read Only permissions can only access specifically assigned Customers and CMAs, and cannot access the MDS Contents mode of any MDG view.
E. The Administrator can log in to the CMA directly using one of the NGX SmartConsoles, but cannot access the MDG.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 46
Which of the following examples are the BEST uses of a Global Policy?
A. Not logging specific traffic to reduce the amount of information in the log files.
B. Controlling connections with a global object to which all remote Customer systems have access, such as an FTP server installed at the MSP.
C. Logging all accepted traffic.
D. Forcing a specific group of users to authenticate before entering a specific customer’s VPN Domain.
E. Allowing SecureClient access to a specific customer’s VPN Domain.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
Which of the following services must be allowed through the NOC firewall to give a remote MDG access to the MDS?
A. CPMI
B. FW1_MGMT
C. CP_GUI
D. TCP_GUI
E. FW1_CPMI
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
To configure cross-Customer VPNs, what CMA information must be imported into the Global Security Policy?
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QUESTION 40
Which of the following types of Communities can be configured as a Global VPN?
A. Site-to-Site star
B. Dual
C. Remote access meshed
D. Site-to-Site ring
E. Remote-Access star
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
To configure cross-customer VPNs, what CMA information must be imported into the Global Security Policy?
A. User Group objects
B. Network objects
C. Administrators objects
D. Gateway objects
E. Customer objects
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Logging in to the MDS requires your username or certificate and password. Which of the following is also required?
A. Resolvable name of Primary MDS
B. IP Address of CMA
C. Resolvable name of CMA
D. Virtual IP Address (VIP) of CMA
E. Default IP Address of CMA
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
If a CLM is hosted on a non-MLM type of MDS, which of the following is TRUE?
A. There is a limit to the number of modules (20) that can log to the CLM
B. The CLM can only function as a backup log server if the CMA is unreachable
C. The CLM must be licensed
D. The CLM can function as both a log and management server
E. This scenario is impossible. The CLMs can’t be loaded on any other type of MDS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
To configure cross-customer VPNs, what CMA information must be imported into the Global Security Policy?
A. User Group objects
B. Certificate Authority Objects and Certificates
C. Customer objects
D. Administrator Objects
E. Network Objects
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
When installing the Primary MDS, what information must you have?
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QUESTION 40
If you want your customer’s virtual systems to give protected hosts access to and from the internet, which of the following must be configured as a Public IP address?
A. Main IP of the Virtual Switch
B. Default Gateway IP Address of the Virtual Switch
C. Main IP of the Customer’s Virtual System
D. Main IP of the Management Virtual System
E. Default Gateway IP Address of the Management Virtual System
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
When configuring a Warp Link, what is the IP address that appears in the topology properties of the External Virtual Router?
A. Either the IP Address designated as the main IP for the Virtual System to which the link connects; or its Static Network Address Translation IP Address
B. 255.255.255.255
C. Same as the IP Address of the External Virtual Router
D. 0.0.0.0
E. Always the IP address designated as the main IP, for the Virtual System to which the link connects
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
If a VSX Gateway is protecting multiple customer networks behind only one shared interface, the VSX Administrator must either configure _____________ for source-based routing or deploy a VLAN solution.
A. An Internal Virtual Router
B. VSX Gateway High Availability
C. Non-VLAN Interface Trunking
D. VSX Gateway Load Sharing
E. Multiple External Virtual Routers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
When installing the Security Policy of a Management Virtual System (MVS), what objects are available for Policy installation, other than the MVS?
A. All configured Virtual Routers
B. No other object is available for Policy installation
C. All configured Virtual Systems and the External Virtual Router
D. All configured Virtual Systems
E. All configured Virtual Switches
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Which of the following is the only interface configured by running sysconfig, during the installation of a VSX Gateway in a single Gateway environment?
