Category: Cisco Exam Dumps 2020
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QUESTION 1
When web policies are configured in Cisco Umbrella, what provides the ability to ensure that domains are blocked when
they host malware, command and control, phishing, and more threats?
A. Application Control
B. Security Category Blocking
C. Content Category Blocking
D. File Analysis
Correct Answer: B
https://support.umbrellA.com/hc/en-us/articles/115004563666-Understanding-Security-Categories
QUESTION 2
Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?
A. dot1x system-auth-control
B. dot1x pae authenticator
C. authentication port-control auto
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/nfvis/switch_command/b-nfvisswitchcommandreference/802_1x_commands.html
QUESTION 3
What is a difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN?
A. FlexVPN uses IKEvI or IKEv2. DMVPN uses only IKEv2
B. DMVPN uses only IKEvI FlexVPN uses only IKEv2.
C. DMVPN uses IKEvI or IKEv2. FlexVPN only uses IKEvI
D. FlexVPN uses IKEv2. DMVPN uses IKEvI or IKEv2.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new Cisco FTD device to their network and wants to manage it with
Cisco FMC. The Cisco FTD uses a registration key of Cisc392481137 and is not behind a NAT device. Which command
is needed to enable this on the Cisco FTD?
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QUESTION 1
An engineer must configure a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on
the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an ethernet interface. Which additional configuration must be made on the tunnel
interface?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What is provided by the Stealthwatch component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution?
A. real-time threat management to stop DDoS attacks to the core and access networks
B. real-time awareness of users, devices and traffic on the network
C. malware control
D. dynamic threat control for web traffic
Correct Answer: B
Cisco Stealthwatch is a comprehensive, network telemetry-based, security monitoring and analytics solution that
streamlines incident response through behavioral analysis; detecting denial of service attacks, anomalous behaviour,
malicious
activity and insider threats. Based on a scalable enterprise architecture, Stealthwatch provides near real-time situational
awareness of all users and devices on the network.
Reference: https://www.endace.com/cisco-stealthwatch-solution-brief.pdf
Note: Although answer A seems to be correct but in fact, Stealthwatch does not provide real-time protection for DDoS
attack. It just helpsdetect DDoS attack only.
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
How many maximum hops can an ILS update traverse?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
An administrator is implementing a new dial-plan on Cisco Unified Border Element. The administrator must ensure that
incoming dial-peers are matched based on the IP address from where the incoming request originates.
Which dial-peer configuration should be applied to accomplish this requirement?
A. dial-peer voice 1 voip incoming url via
B. dial-peer voice 1 voip incoming url request
C. dial-peer voice 1 voip incoming called-number
D. dial-peer voice 1 voip incoming url to
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which two types of distribution algorithm are within a line group? (Choose two.)
A. random
B. circular
C. highest preference
D. top down
E. bottom up
Correct Answer: BD
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/9_0_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_CDF59AFB_00_admin-guide-90/CUCM_BK_CDF59AFB_00_adminguide_chapter_0100011.html
QUESTION 4
Which two configuration parameters are prerequisites to set Native Call Queuing on Cisco Unified Communications
Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Service must be activated on at least one node in the cluster.
B. A unicast music on hold audio source must be configured.
C. Cisco RIS data collector service must be running on the same server as the Cisco CallManager service.
D. The maximum number of callers allowed in queue must be 10.
E. The phone button template must have the Queue Status Softkey configured.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/12_0_1/systemConfig/cucm_b_systemconfiguration-guide-1201/cucm_b_system-configurationguide1201_chapter_01001101.html#CUCM_RF_C960BC9A_00
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured a SIP trunk between two Cisco UCM clusters. For calls that should
use the trunk, the calls fail with a fast busy. The administrator checks the Cisco CallManager SDL traces and found that
the cluster to which the calling device is registered never sends an INVITE to the destination cluster. The administrator
also verifies that all nodes from both clusters are powered on, and the CallManager service is running. How is this issue
resolved?
A. The administrator must associate the route pattern with a calling search space the device can dial.
B. The administrator needs to enable OPTIONS pings on the SIP trunks for both clusters.
C. The administrator must allow connectivity so that TCP connections do not fail between the nodes.
D. The administrator needs to disable OPTIONS pings on the SIP trunks for both clusters.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
An engineer must configure call queuing under a Hunt Pilot. After the engineer receives the audio file that will be played
to callers during queuing, which two steps should be taken to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Assign the uploaded audio file to the hunting Line Group member\\’s » Read more about: [July -2021] Latest Cisco 300-815 actual exam questions for free, 300-815 exam discount »
[July -2021] Latest Cisco 300-730 actual exam questions for free, 300-730 exam discount
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QUESTION 1
What uses an Elliptic Curve key exchange algorithm?
A. ECDSA
B. ECDHE
C. AES-GCM
D. SHA
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://blog.cloudflare.com/a-relatively-easy-to-understand-primer-on-elliptic-curve-cryptography/
QUESTION 2
Which two NHRP functions are specific to DMVPN Phase 3 implementation? (Choose two.)
A. registration reply
B. redirect
C. resolution reply
D. registration request
E. resolution request
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
A Cisco AnyConnect client establishes a SSL VPN connection with an ASA at the corporate office. An engineer must
ensure that the client computer meets the enterprise security policy. Which feature can update the client to meet an
enterprise security policy?
A. Endpoint Assessment
B. Cisco Secure Desktop
C. Basic Host Scan
D. Advanced Endpoint Assessment
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which two statements about the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN solution are true? (Choose two.)
A. When a client connects to the Cisco ASA WebVPN portal and tries to access HTTP resources through the URL bar,
the client uses the local DNS to perform FQDN resolution.
B. The rewriter enable command under the global webvpn configuration enables the rewriter functionality because that
feature is disabled by default.
C. A Cisco ASA can simultaneously allow Clientless SSL VPN sessions and AnyConnect client sessions.
D. When a client connects to the Cisco ASA WebVPN portal and tries to access HTTP resources through the URL bar,
the ASA uses its configured DNS servers to perform FQDN resolution.
E. Clientless SSLVPN provides Layer 3 connectivity into the secured network.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 5
What are two functions of ECDH and ECDSA? (Choose two.)
A. nonrepudiation
B. revocation
C. digital signature
D. key exchange
E. encryption
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/next_generation_cryptography
QUESTION 6
A second set of traffic selectors is negotiated between two peers using IKEv2. Which IKEv2 packet will contain details of
the exchange?
A. IKEv2 IKE_SA_INIT
B. IKEv2 INFORMATIONAL
C. IKEv2 CREATE_CHILD_SA
D. IKEv2 IKE_AUTH
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which parameter is initially used to elect the primary key server from a group of key servers?
A. code version
B. highest IP address
C. highest-priority value
D. lowest IP address
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/group-encrypted-transportvpn/deployment_guide_c07_554713.html
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. All internal clients behind the ASA are port address translated to the public outside interface that
has an IP address of 3.3.3.3. Client 1 and client 2 have established successful SSL VPN connections to the ASA. What
must be implemented so that “3.3.3.3” is returned from a browser search on the IP address?
A. Same-security-traffic permit inter-interface under Group Policy
B. Exclude Network List Below under Group Policy
C. Tunnel All Networks under Group Policy
D. Tunnel Network List Below under Group Policy
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which benefit of FlexVPN is a limitation of DMVPN using IKEv1? » Read more about: [July -2021] Latest Cisco 300-730 actual exam questions for free, 300-730 exam discount »
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QUESTION 1
You plan to use OSPFv2 on several Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switches. Which setting must match on the neighboring
switches to establish adjacency?
A. the LSA arrival time
B. the dead interval
C. the last flood scan time
D. the retransmit interval
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
An engineer must upgrade all components in a Cisco UCS domain to the same package version, but the upgrade
process fails to complete. Which set of Auto Install actions resolves the problem?
A. Install Infrastructure Firmware, then Install Server Firmware.
B. Install infrastructure Firmware, then Install Hypervisor Firmware.
C. Install Hypervisor Firmware, then Install Infrastructure Firmware
D. Install Server Firmware, then Install Infrastructure Firmware
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmwaremgmt/gui/2-5/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_25/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_25_chapter_0111.pdf
QUESTION 3
During a boot process of a Cisco UCS C-Series Rack Server, an engineer receives a “No Signal” message from the
vKVM and physical connection. Which set of steps resolves the issue?
A. 1- Disconnect the power cord 2- Confirm that all cards are property seated 3- Connect the power cord and power on
the server
B. 1- Power off the server and disconnect the power cord 2- Confirm that all cards are property seated 3- Connect the
power cord and power on the server
C. 1- Power off the server and disconnect the power cord 2- Confirm that all cards are available 3- Connect the power
cord and power on the server
D. 1- Disconnect the power cord 2- Confirm that all cards are properly seated 3- Connect the power cord
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/ts/guide/b_C-Series_Troubleshooting_Guide.pdf
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. » Read more about: [July -2021] Latest Cisco 300-615 actual exam questions for free, 300-615 exam discount »
[July -2021] Latest Cisco 300-610 actual exam questions for free, 300-610 exam discount
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QUESTION 1
Which feature must be configured to connect a classical Ethernet network to a data center network so that the data
center network appears to be one large switch?
A. vPC+
B. UDLD
C. EVPN
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which type fields can an engineer use to identify an iSCSI participant? (Choose two.)
A. type
B. preshared key
C. port number
D. identifying tag
E. hostname
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ISCSI
QUESTION 3
What is a design consideration when implementing FSPF?
A. Routes are based on the domain ID.
B. Routes are based on the distance vector protocol.
C. FSPF runs only on F Ports.
D. FSPF runs on a per-chassis basis.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_0/configuration/guides/fabric/nxos/cli_fabric/fspf.html
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the components from the left onto the descriptions on the right that indicate what occurs to Fibre Channel
fabric when that component fails.
QUESTION 5
What can be implemented on Cisco Nexus 5600 Series Switches for link redundancy within a Fibre Channel fabric?
A. vPC+
B. E-Trunk
C. SAN port channel
D. LACP port channel
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
An engineer must connect an existing Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect to an IP-based storage array. The connection
must be a port channel made directly between the fabric interconnect expansion module and the storage array. The
engineer must also consider that the environment is running FCoE for storage and uses QoS to prioritize traffic.
Which port type should be used to meet these requirements?
A. network
B. uplink
C. server
D. appliance
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which two statements describe Ethernet switching mode on Cisco UCS 6100 Series Fabric Interconnects? (Choose
two.)
A. STP runs on the uplink ports of each VLAN, as defined by PVSTP+.
B. STP runs on the uplink ports of each VLAN, as defined by MSTP.
C. The STP parameter configuration is unsupported.
D. The STP parameter configuration is supported.
E. STP runs on the server ports.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified-computing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html
QUESTION 8
An engineer deploys LISP VM mobility.
Which feature is configured on the interfaces that have VM mobility enabled?
A. IP redirects
B. flow control
C. proxy ARP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/lisp/configuration/guide/b_NXOS_LISP_Configuration_Guide/b_NX-OS_LISP_Configuration_Guide_chapter_010.html
QUESTION 9
Which orchestration tool provides a graphical interface to manage LAN and SAN fabrics?
A. Cisco Virtual Topology System
B. Cisco Data Center Network Manager
C. Cisco Nexus Fabric Manager
D. Cisco CloudCenter
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/DCNM_OLH/SAN_Client/fmhelp/fmc.html#34479
QUESTION 10
An engineer is implementing management access to a Cisco Nexus platform. The customer requires a solution that
provides isolation between the data and control planes, in addition to management that uses encryption and
authentication. The customer will manage the device using both IPv4 and IPv6.
Which two components should be used to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. mgmt0 interface
B. SSH protocol
C. SNMP
D. SVI interface
E. Telnet protocol
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11
What is the disadvantage of asynchronous storage replication as compared to synchronous storage replication in a
disaster recovery design? » Read more about: [July -2021] Latest Cisco 300-610 actual exam questions for free, 300-610 exam discount »
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QUESTION 1
A user is trying to connect to a wireless network that is configured for WPA2-Enterprise security using a corporate
laptop. The CA certificate for the authentication server has been installed on the Trusted Root Certification Authorities
store on the laptop. The user has been prompted to enter the credentials multiple times, but the authentication has not
succeeded. What is causing the issue?
A. There is an IEEE invalid 802.1X authentication policy on the authentication server.
B. The user Active Directory account is locked out after several failed attempts.
C. There is an invalid 802.1X authentication policy on the authenticator.
D. The laptop has not received a valid IP address from the wireless controller.
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Security/TrustSec_199/Dot1X_Deployment/Dot1x_Dep_Guide.html
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
The network management team in a large shopping center has detected numerous rogue APs from local coffee shops
that are broadcasting SSIDs. All of these SSIDs have names starting with ATC (for example, ATC302, ATC011, and
ATC566). A wireless network engineer must appropriately classify these SSIDs using the Rogue Rules feature. Drag
and drop the options from the left onto the categories in which they must be used on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3
Which two configurations are applied on the WLC to enable multicast, check multicast stream subscriptions, and stream
content only to subscribed clients? (Choose two)
A. Enable IGMP snooping
B. Set the IGMP timeout to 180 seconds
C. Enable broadcast forwarding
D. Enable 802.3x flow control mode.
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QUESTION 1
What are two benefits of designing an SD-WAN network fabric with direct Internet access implemented at every site?
(Choose two.)
A. It decreases latency to applications hosted by public cloud service provider.
B. It decreases latency on Internet circuits.
C. It increases the speed of delivery of site deployments through zero-touch provisioning.
D. It increases the total available bandwidth on Internet circuits.
E. It alleviates network traffic on MPLS circuits.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2
How is redundancy achieved among Cisco vBond Orchestrators in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?
A. The IP addresses of all Orchestrators are mapped to a single DNS name.
B. The closest Orchestrator to each Cisco WAN Edge router is selected.
C. Cisco WAN Edge routers are configured with all Orchestrators using their IP addresses and priority.
D. A single Cisco Orchestrator is deployed in each network.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which two BGP features will result in successful route exchanges between eBGP neighbors sharing the same AS
number? (Choose two.)
A. advertise-best-external
B. bestpath as-path ignore
C. client-to-client reflection
D. as-override
E. allow-as-in
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 4
When vEdge router redundancy is designed, which FHRP is supported?
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QUESTION 1
Which type of route advertisement of OMP can be verified?
A. Origin, TLOC, and VPN
B. Origin, TLOC, and service
C. OMP, VPN, and origin
D. OMP, TLOC, and service
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Software_Features/Release_18.2/03Routing/01Unicast_Overlay_Routing_Overview#OMP_Route_Advertisements
QUESTION 2
Which two products are used to deploy Cisco WAN Edge Router virtual platforms? (Choose two.)
A. HP ProLiant DL360 Generatton10 running HP-UX
B. Cisco ENCS 5000 Series
C. Sun SPARC Node running AIX
D. Cisco UCS
E. Sun Enterprise M4000 Server running Sun Solans
Correct Answer: BD
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/routers/5400-enterprise-network-compute-system/datasheetc78-738512.html
QUESTION 3
An engineer is tasked to improve throughput for connection-oriented traffic by decreasing round-trip latency Which
configuration will achieve this goal?
A. turn on “Enable TCP Optimization”
B. turn off “Enhance ECMP Keying”
C. turn off “Enable TCP Optimization”
D. turn on “Enhance ECMP Keying”
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the route verification output from show omp tlocs from the left onto the correct explanations on the right.
Select and Place:
QUESTION 5
Which protocol is used to measure loss, latency, jitter, and liveliness of the tunnel between WAN Edge router peers?
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused
instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to deny when
redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.
B. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to allow
when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.
C. Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing
domain.
D. Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF.
Correct Answer: A
When doing mutual redistribution at multiple points (between OSPF and EIGRP on R1 and R2), we may create routing
loops so we should use route-map to prevent redistributed routes from redistributing again into the original domain. In
the below example, the route-map “SET-TAG” is used to prevent any routes that have been redistributed into EIGRP
from redistributed again into OSPF domain by tagging these routes with tag 1:
QUESTION 2
Which two statements about redistributing EIGRP into OSPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database
B. The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as type 5 LSAs in the OSPF database
C. The administrative distance of the redistributed routes is 170
D. The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as OSPF external type 1
E. The redistributed EIGRP routes as placed into an OSPF area whose area ID matches the EIGRP autonomous
system number
F. The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as OSPF external type 2 routes in the routing table
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer wanted to set a tag of 30 to route 10 1.80.65/32 but it failed How is the issue fixed?
