Category: Cisco
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QUESTION 110
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Which three techniques can be used to transition from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. 6to4 tunneling
B. flow label
C. dual stack
D. anycast
E. NAT
F. mobile IP
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 112
Which command displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured?
A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp paths
C. show ip bgp peers
D. show ip bgp summary
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the debug output that is shown, which three statements about HSRP are true? (Choose three.)
A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 haspreempt configured.
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QUESTION 123
Which statement best summarizes how DHCP snooping works?
A. DHCP snooping validates the header information of all DHCP replies and only allows the reply through if it has a matching request in the DSRT.
B. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port sent a DHCP request in the last 5 seconds.
C. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port specifically sent a DHCP request.
D. DHCP snooping determines which switch ports are trusted and can source all DHCP messages.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration provided, how are the Hello packets sent by R2 handled by R5 in OSPF area 5?
A. The Hello packets will be exchanged and adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5.
B. The Hello packets will be exchanged but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors only.
C. The Hello packets will be dropped and no adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5.
D. The Hello packets will be dropped but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
A network administrator would like to configure 802.1x port-based authentication, however, the client workstation is not 802.1x compliant. What is the only supported authentication server that can be used?
A. TACACS with LEAP extensions
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with EAP extensions
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 126
Which two statements are true about port security? (Choose two.)
A. With port security configured, four MAC addressesare allowed by default.
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QUESTION 50
Certkiller .com has a central site that is connected to a branch office via a 1.544-Mbps T1 Frame Relay circuit. The branch office has 20 video-enabled users in it. Least cost routing is used. It is required that all 20 users are able to use video services simultaneously for internal calls. Which solution best meets this objective?
A. Route video calls up to the central site in order to save on toll charges.
B. Upgrade the 1.544-Mbps T1 circuit to higher bandwidth.
C. Deploy an IP-videoconferencing video gateway at the branch office and not bother with LCR.
D. Use the Retry Video Call as Audio feature to reroute video calls as voice-only calls if they exceed the available bandwidth.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
In order for Cisco IP/VC 3500 Series MCU to register with a gatekeeper, which two parameters must be checked? (Choose two.)
A. RAS registration with video gateway
B. registration method, use multicast or specify IP address and port number
C. registration of gateway name and domain name
D. set TTL in gateway
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
When a H.323 device queries a gatekeeper for a route to a destination E.164 address, to which Cisco CallManager server in a cluster does the gatekeeper send the call?
A. The gatekeeper will use the Cisco CallManager server that is configured with the highest priority.
B. The gatekeeper will send the call to all the active Cisco CallManager servers in the cluster.
C. The gatekeeper will randomly distribute the calls to the Cisco CallManager servers that are defined in the Cisco CallManager group that the trunk will use.
D. The gatekeeper will use the gateway that is configured with the preference of 0 in the gw-priority command.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Certkiller .com currently has a room-based videoconferencing system that is connected to the PSTN via three BRIs. Certkiller .com is converting to H.323 and would like to continue using the BRIs to make video calls to the suppliers. Which device should the company deploy?
A. Cisco IPVC 3511
B. Cisco IPVC 3521
C. Cisco IPVC 3526
D. Cisco IPVC 3540
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
How should the IP-to-IP gateway be configured to support video codecs across all dial peers?
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QUESTION 96
Refer to the exhibit. What happens when the switch SW2 is connected to the rest of the network in the VTP domain Lab_Network?
A. The recently introduced switch SW2 adds one more VLAN to the VLAN database in the VTP domain.
B. The recently introduced switch SW2 creates a STP loop in the VTP domain.
C. The recently introduced switch SW2 removes all configured VLANs throughout the VTP domain.
D. The recently introduced switch SW2 switches over to VTP transparent mode in order to be included into the VTP domain.
E. A trunk should be configured between the two switches in order to integrate SW2 into the VTP domain.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
A campus infrastructure supports wireless clients via Cisco Aironet AG Series 1230, 1240, and 1250 access points. With DNS and DHCP configured, the 1230 and 1240 access points appear to boot and operate normally; however, the 1250 access points do not seem to operate correctly. What is the most likely issue causing this problem?
A. DHCP with option 150
B. DHCP with option 43
C. PoE
D. DNS
E. switch port does not support gigabit speeds
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
A standalone wireless AP solution is being installed into the campus infrastructure. The access points appear to boot correctly, however, wireless clients are not obtaining correct access. You verify that the local switch configuration connected to the access point appears as the following:
interface ethernet 0/1 switchport access vlan 10 switchport mode access spanning-tree portfast mls qos trust dscp
What is the most likely issue causing the problem?
A. QoS trust should not be configured on a port attached to a standalone AP.
B. QoS trust for switchport mode access should be defined as “cos”.
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QUESTION 66
PassGuide is implementing 802.1X in order to increase network security. In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Select three)
A. EAP-over-LAN
B. EAP MD5
C. STP
D. protocols not filtered by an ACL
E. CDP
F. TACACS+
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
VLAN maps have been configured on switch PG1. Which of the following actions are taken in a VLAN map that does not contain a match clause?
A. Implicit deny feature at end of list.
B. Implicit deny feature at start of list.
C. Implicit forward feature at end of list
D. Implicit forward feature at start of list.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
A PassGuide switch was configured as shown below:
switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
Given the configuration output shown above, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port?
A. The host will be allowed to connect.
B. The port will shut down.
C. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.
D. The host will be refused access.
E. None of the other alternatives apply
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
You need to configure port security on switch PG1. Which two statements are true about this technology? (Select two)
A. Port security can be configured for ports supporting VoIP.
B. With port security configured, four MAC addresses are allowed by default. C. The network administrator must manually enter the MAC address for each device in order for the switch to allow connectivity.
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QUESTION 77
Which IOS show command can be used to examine the MPLS VPN label stack for a prefix?
A. show ip route vrf {vrf-name} {ip-prefix}
B. show ip cef {ip-prefix}
C. show ip cef vrf {vrf-name} {ip-prefix}
D. show ip vrf detail
E. show ip bgp vpnv4 all
F. show mpls interfaces
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Using OSPF as the CE-PE routing protocol, when and which router will set the down bit?
A. The PE router will set the down bit when redistributing routes from MP-BGP into OSPF.
B. The PE router will set the down bit when redistributing routes from OSPF into MP-BGP.
C. The CE router will set the down bit when propagating the OSPF route to the PE router.
D. The PE router will set the down bit when propagating the OSPF route to the CE router.
E. The P router will set the down bit when propagating the route to another P router.
F. The PE router will set the down bit when propagating the route to another PE router over MP-BGP.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which type of VPN implementation is simple and cost effective because all sites connect only to the PE router and as a result optimum routing between sites is enabled by default?
A. peer-to-peer VPN
B. overlapping VPN
C. hub-and-spoke overlay VPN
D. fully-meshed overlay VPN
E. client-server VPN
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Which three fields must be included in MPBGP updates between PE routers in an MPLS network? (Choose three.)
A. VPNv4 address
B. label used for VPN packet forwarding
C. AS path
D. Site of Origin
E. TE path designator
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
A pair of MPLS routers, operating in the default frame-mode, are connected over two parallel links. Which of the following describes what will happen when they try to establish LDP sessions?
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QUESTION 135
Which VRF parameters must be specified for a VRF to become operational?
A. RD
B. Interface
C. Import RT.
D. Export RT.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
How are route targets used to build virtual routing tables in the PE-routers?
A. Route targets are prepended to each entry in the VRF to identify which VPN owns the route.
B. Route targets are prepended to the customer’s IP address to create unique address spacing for each VPN.
C. Every customer route exported from a VRF is tagged with appropriate export route targets. VPN routes received by a PE-router are matched against import route targets configured in a CRF.
D. Every customer route received from the CE is matched against import route targets. If there is match, the route is added to the VRF. Every route received from the neighbor PE-router is entered in the VRF. It is then matched against export route targets.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Route distinguisher is prepended to IP address to create VPN address, not Route target.
QUESTION 137
When should you disable redistribution of IPv4 routing updates between MP-BGP neighbors?
A. When the network only supports MPLS VPNs.
B. When the network is using OSPF or ISIS instead of I-BGP as the network IGP.
C. When you want to reduce the number of labels that the P-router needs to store.
D. When you want to reduce the number of routes that the P-routers must store in their global BGP routing table.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
With MPLS VPNs, which four elements will be included in an MP-BGP update exchange between the PE routers? (Choose two)
A. VPNv4 Address
B. Route tag
C. Label used for VPN packet forwarding
D. Mandatory BGP attributed like As-Path and Next-Hop
E. Route target
F. Implicit null label used for PHP operation
Correct Answer: ACDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
The VPN named my_vpn is operating on interface s0/0 a PE-router. The CE-PE routing protocol isRIP.
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QUESTION 52
A rogue access point is detected on the Cisco WCS console. Upon investigation, the access point is discovered to belong to a neighboring business. Your administrator should designate the rogue access point as which of the following?
A. friendly
B. managed
C. known external
D. known internal
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
When setting an access point to a non-root role, what two parameters, other than Role in the Radio Network, must be configured on the SSID Manager page? (Choose two.)
A. Set Data Beacon Rate
B. Set infrastructure SSID
C. Enable IP redirection on this SSID
D. Multiple Basic Service Set Identification (BSSID)
E. Infrastructure devices to associate only to this SSID
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
The Cisco Wireless Location Appliance can track up to how many devices?
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 2000
D. 2500
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which of the following accurately represents the functionality of a lightweight access point configured to operate in sniffer AP mode?
A. client traffic allowed, data captured on all channels
B. no client traffic allowed, data captured on all channels
C. client traffic allowed, data captured on a single channel
D. no client traffic allowed, data captured on a single channel
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
What are three of the User Groups that are available on the Cisco WCS? (Choose three.)
A. Admin
B. Power Users
C. Administrators
D. Users’ Assistant
E. Network Operator
F. System Monitoring
Correct Answer: ADF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
When configuring a wireless LAN controller for QoS, what 802.1p tag should be applied for video applications? (Choose one.)
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
On a Series 1010 lightweight access point, the alarm LED is flashing red, and all other LEDs are off. What is the lightweight accesspoint indicating?
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QUESTION 1
Which three primary functions are required to secure communication across network links? (Choose three.)
A. accounting
B. anti-replay protection
C. authentication
D. authorization
E. confidentiality
F. integrity
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 2
Which two encryption algorithms are commonly used to encrypt the contents of a message? (Choose two.)
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. IPsec
D. PKI
E. SHA1
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
An administrator requires a PKI that supports a longer lifetime for keys used for digital signing operations than for keys used for encrypting data. Which feature should the PKI support?
A. certificate keys
B. nonrepudiation keys
C. usage keys
D. variable keys
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Two users must authenticate each other using digital certificates and a CA. Which option describes the CA authentication procedure?
A. The CA is always required, even after user verification is complete.
B. The users must obtain the certificate of the CA and then their own certificate.
C. After user verification is complete, the CA is no longer required, even if one of the involved certificates expires.
D. CA certificates are retrieved out-of-band using the PSTN, and the authentication is done in-band over a network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
A customer purchases an item from an e-commerce site. The e-commerce site must maintain proof that the data exchange took place between the site and the customer. Which feature of digital signatures is required?
A. authenticity of digitally signed data
B. integrity of digitally signed data
C. nonrepudiation of the transaction
D. confidentiality of the public key
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
What is the basic method used by 3DES to encrypt plaintext?
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QUESTION 65
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Within the “sdm-permit” policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class “class-default”?
A. inspect
B. pass
C. drop
D. police
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Which policy map is associated to the “sdm-zp-in-out” security zone pair?
A. sdm-permit-icmpreply
B. sdm-permit
C. sdm-inspect
D. sdm-insp-traffic
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Within the “sdm-inspect” policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class “sdm-invalid-src”, and which traffic is matched by the traffic class “sdm-invlid-src” ? (Choose two.)
A. traffic matched by ACL 100
B. traffic matched by the nested “sdm-cls-insp-traffic” class map
C. inspect/log
D. traffic matched by ACL 104
E. Drop/Log
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 68
Which one is the most important based on the following common elements of a network design?
A. Business needs
B. Best practices C. Risk analysis
D. Security policy
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
Examine the following items, which one offers a variety of security solutions, including firewall, IPS, VPN, antispyware, antivirus, and antiphishing features?
