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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Exhibit The result of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command is displayed in the exhibit. What command should be executed to make this interface operational?
A. Certkiller C(config-if)#enable
B. Certkiller C(config-if)# no keepalive
C. Certkiller C(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
D. Certkiller C(config-if)# no shutdown
E. Certkiller C(config-if)# clockrate 56000
F. Certkiller C(config-if)# line protocol up
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which command will reinitialize the router and totally replace the running configuration with the current startup configuration?
A. Certkiller B#reload
B. Certkiller B# copy tftp startup-config
C. Certkiller B# copy startup.-config running-config
D. Certkiller B# copy running-config flash
E. Certkiller B# setup
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which is the correct fallback sequence for loading the Cisco IOS?
A. ROM, Flash, NVRAM
B. ROM, TFTP server, Flash
C. Flash, TFTP server ROM
D. Flash NVRAM, RAM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Study the Exhibit below carefully:
A new router has been installed in the branch office in Lisbon. However, the network administrator cannot make a backup of the IOS image of the new route to the TFTP server located in the Gibraltar office. Following the network diagram, can you identify the cause of the problem?
A. IP address if the TFTP server not correct.
B. Incorrect subnet mask of the TFTP server.
C. Default gateway of the TFTP server not properly set.
D. Subnet mask on the Lisbon router not correct
E. Incorrect IP address configured on E0 of the Gibraltar router
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . Certkiller users report that they cannot access resources on the LAN attached to interface e0 of router CK1 . You want to view the current IP addressing and the Layer 1 and Layer 2 status of this interface. Which of the following commands could you use? (Choose three.)
A. CK1 # show version
B. CK1 # show protocols
C. CK1 # show interfaces
D. CK1 # show controllers
E. CK1 # show ip interface
F. CK1 # show startup-config
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 6
You are a network technician at Certkiller . You are troubleshooting a LAN connectivity problem. Which of the following router IOS commands could you use? (Select three options.)
A. show ip route
B. winipcfg
C. tracert
D. show interfaces
E. traceroute
F. ping
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 7
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what command she can use to verify the active configuration on a Cisco router.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem?
A. The VLAN database was not erased.
B. The management VLAN is disabled.
C. The running configuration should have been erased.
D. The “mode” button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.
E. The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined.
D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)
A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. The bandwidth is set too low.
C. A protocol mismatch exists.
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which of the following devices can an administrator use to segment their LAN? (Choose all that apply)
A. Hubs
B. Repeaters
C. Switches
D. Bridges
E. Routers
F. Media Converters
G. All of the above
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 2
Routers perform which of the following functions? (Select three)
A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internetwork communication
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 3
Within the Certkiller office, The Sales and Production networks are separated by a router as shown in the diagram below:
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the characteristics of the above networks broadcast and collision domains? (Select the two best answer choices)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 4
The Certkiller corporate LAN consists of one large flat network. You decide to segment this LAN into two separate networks with a router. What will be the affect of this change?
A. The number of broadcast domains will be decreased.
B. It will make the broadcasting of traffic between domains more efficient between segments.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
If an ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet?
A. 1024
B. 2046
C. 4094
D. 4096
E. 8190
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
An access list was written with the four statements shown in the graphic. Which single access list statement will combine all four of these statements into a single statement that will have exactly the same effect?
A. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.0.255
B. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.1.255
C. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.3.255
D. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.15.255
E. access-list 10 permit 172.29.0.0 0.0.255.255
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?
A. 172.1.0.0/22
B. 172.1.0.0/21
C. 172.1.4.0/22
D. 172.1.4.0/24172.1.5.0/24172.1.6.0/24172.1.7.0/24
E. 172.1.4.0/25172.1.4.128/25172.1.5.0/24172.1.6.0/24172.1.7.0/24
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
Which routing protocols can be used within the enterprise network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.)
A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
E. BGP
F. EIGRP
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit has just been installed. Host B can access the Internet, but it is unable to ping host C. What is the problem with thisconfiguration?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What are the advantages of using FabricPath technology? (Choose three.)
A. FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning
B. Loop mitigation with TTL in the frame field
C. STPl independence
D. 10 Gbps bandwidth
E. Layer 2 extensions between data centers
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2
A network administrator has installed an N7K-F248-25XP module into an existing chassis. The module is powered on, but the interfaces are all in VDC0. What is the reason for this?
A. The chassis needs an EPLD upgrade to support the new module type.
B. The default VDC cannot support F2 modules.
C. The interfaces must be allocated into a VDC for F2 modules only.
D. The module has failed GOLD diagnostics, and the switch has isolated the ports to protect the integrity of the system.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which two statements about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bring up protocol automatically detects and overrides any misconfiguration.
B. You can manually configure channel groups, or they can be automatically created.
C. Changes in configuration to the SAN port channel interface must also be made to all members of the channel group.
D. The port channel protocol uses the exchange fabric parameters command to communicate across peer ports in an ISL.
E. The port channel protocol ensures that a set of ports is eligible to be part of the same SAN port channel.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4
Which three capabilities make the Cisco Nexus 7010 switch an effective solution for the data center core? (Choose three.)
A. virtualization
B. unified I/O
C. support for 48-port Gb/s line card
D. support for Data Center Service Modules
E. high performance
F. high availability
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 5
Which statement about Cisco Unified Fabric switches iscorrect?
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The Most Recommended Cisco 350-060 Certification For Free Download Questions And Answer
Exam A QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
Why are thresholds defined based on baseline documents?
A. to ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately
B. to help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks
C. to suppress duplicate alarms and allow for event correlation
D. to reduce polling traffic on the network
E. to verify that interfaces are in the correct state
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
According to ITIL. v3 framework, which type of tools is best suited to ensure management of a predefined workflow stream containing a set of tasks which can be managed around resource availability, timelines, status, and if needed escalation paths?
A. process control engine
B. configuration management system
C. discovery audit
D. business service management
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
According to ITIL. v3 framework, which type of warranty assurance provides a customer with a measured confidence that services are supporting defined level of demand and quality?
A. security
B. availability
C. capacity
D. continuity
E. fulfillment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A rollout plan from engineering has been sent to the NOC for deployment. Part of the plan involves a complex software upgrade to a network element. The method of procedure provided by engineering is nearly 100 individual steps long. Where do you expect to find backout procedures to be specified?
A. after each step that causes a change to the network
B. after every 20 (+/- 5) steps
C. after the midway point
D. after the method of procedure is completed
E. both after the midway point and after the method of procedure is completed
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You are working in a service provider voice NOC supporting a national VoIP network. The network underwent a capacity expansion that added voice bearer trunks to a newly deployed media gateway. After the new trunks were configured and placed into live service, the service desk began to receive complaints from end customers that their VoIP service is not working for certain calls. The service desk is unable to resolve the problem and due to increasing troubles coming in, they escalate to you.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
Why are thresholds defined based on baseline documents?
A. to ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately
B. to help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks
C. to suppress duplicate alarms and allow for event correlation
D. to reduce polling traffic on the network
E. to verify that interfaces are in the correct state
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
According to ITIL. v3 framework, which type of tools is best suited to ensure management of a predefined workflow stream containing a set of tasks which can be managed around resource availability, timelines, status, and if needed escalation paths?
A. process control engine
B. configuration management system
C. discovery audit
D. business service management
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
According to ITIL. v3 framework, which type of warranty assurance provides a customer with a measured confidence that services are supporting defined level of demand and quality?
A. security
B. availability
C. capacity
D. continuity
E. fulfillment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A rollout plan from engineering has been sent to the NOC for deployment. Part of the plan involves a complex software upgrade to a network element. The method of procedure provided by engineering is nearly 100 individual steps long. Where do you expect to find backout procedures to be specified?
A. after each step that causes a change to the network
B. after every 20 (+/- 5) steps
C. after the midway point
D. after the method of procedure is completed
E. both after the midway point and after the method of procedure is completed
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You are working in a service provider voice NOC supporting a national VoIP network. The network underwent a capacity expansion that added voice bearer trunks to a newly deployed media gateway. After the new trunks were configured and placed into live service, the service desk began to receive complaints from end customers that their VoIP service is not working for certain calls. The service desk is unable to resolve the problem and due to increasing troubles coming in, they escalate to you.
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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about NetFlow are true? (Choose three)
A. NetFlow records unidirectional IP traffic flow.
B. NetFlow records MPLS frame flow.
C. NetFlow expert is only over TCP.
D. NetFlow records is only over UDP.
E. NetFlow records subinterface information of traffic flow.
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 2
Which three statements about NetFlow are true? (Choose three)
A. LCP is used for PPP over ATM (PPPoA) setup.
B. LCP is used for PPP over Ethernet (PPPoE) setup.
C. LCP is used for PPP over Ethernet (PPPoPR) setup.
D. LCP is used for PPP CHAP authentication.
E. LCP is used for basic PPP link setup and operation.
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 3
How many messages does Internet Key Exchange use to negotiate SA characteristics when it runs in aggressive mode?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2
E. 6
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which three components are included in the Cisco IOS XR infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. modular line cards
B. shelf controllers
C. route processors
D. service processors
E. distributed service cards
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 5
What does RPL stand for?
A. routing primary language
B. routing policy language
C. routing police language
D. routing program language
E. routing protocol language
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
What three major tasks are performed by a Designated Intermediate System in an ISIS pseudonode environment? (Choose three.)
A. Updating the pseudonode LSP
B. maintaining pseudonode link-state information
C. creating the pseudonode
D. flooding LSPs over the LAN
E. election of the pseudonode
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 7
What is the data encapsulation method for the VPLS virtual circuit (VC)?
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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about OSPF IPv6 routing are true? (Choose two)
A. It requires OSPF version 3.
B. automatically detects neighbors over NHMA interfaces
C. It supports encryption using
D. It uses LSA type 9
E. It uses LSA type 8
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Resilient Ethernet Protocol (REP), how many ports are always blocking?
A. zero
B. at least one
C. at least two
D. at least four
E. at least three
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Which statement about ATM AAL5 over MPLS is true?
A. It supports ATM signaling.
B. It supports traffic shaping of packets in MPLS to the ATM path.
C. It supports ATM switched virtual circuits
D. It supports fragmentation and reassembly.
E. It supports AAL5 SDU switching
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
Which two statements about MPLS point-to-multipoint traffic engineering (P2MP TE) are true? (Choose two)
A. P2MP TE uses an OSPF extension that is different from the OSPF extension that is used in P2P TE.
B. Loose path is not supported in P2MP TE.
C. Multiple IP multicast groups can map to one P2MP tunnel.
D. Affinity is not supported in P2MP TE.
E. P2MP TE uses Constrained Shortest Path First (CSPF) to calculate paths.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 5
In which Cisco IOS configuration mode is the route distinguisher (RD) configured?
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B. R1(config-route-map)#
C. R1(config-it)#
D. R1(config-vrf)#
E. R1(config)#
F. R1(router)#
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which two features prevent routing loops between the OSPF sites of a customer when the sites are multihomed or a backdoor link is used between the sites? (Choose two.)
A. sham link
B. down bit
C. virtual link
D. Site of Origin
E. domain tag
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 7
Cisco IOS XR software is partitioned into three planes: control, data, and management. Which three of these belong to the data plane? (Choose three.)
A. XML
B. RIB
C. FIB
D. QoS
E. PFI
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 8
In which two ways does the BGP graceful capability preserve prefix information during a restart? (Choose two)
A. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routers that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing tables.
