QUESTION 59
Refer to the exhibit. What should be taken into consideration when using the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) to configure the static WEP keys on the wireless client adapter?
A. The client adapter WEP key should be generated by the AP and forwarded to the client adapter before the client adapter can establish communication with the wireless network.
B. The client adapter WEP key should be generated by the authentication server and forwarded to the client adapter before the client adapter can establish communication with the wireless network.
C. In infrastructure mode the client adapter WEP key must match the WEP key used by the access point. In ad hoc mode all client WEP keys within the wireless network must match each other.
D. Before the client adapter WEP key is generated, all wireless infrastructure devices (such as access points, servers, etc.) must be properly configured for LEAP authentication.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 61
Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. In the IS-IS routing domain, routers may have adjacencies with other routers on multipoint links.
B. IS-IS metrics are based on delay, bandwidth, reliability, load, and MTU.
C. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the areas that the routers are connected to.
D. Level 2 routers are equivalent to ABRs in OSPF and learn about paths both within and between areas.
E. Level 1 and Level 2 routing is a function of ES-IS.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
A client is searching for an access point (AP). What is the correct process order that the client and access point go through to create a connection?
A. probe request/response, authentication request/response, association request/response
B. association request/response, authentication request/response, probe request/response
C. probe request/response, association request/response, authentication request/response D. association request/response, probe request/response, authentication request/response
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the ISP router.
B. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the SanJose1 router.
C. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 50 command.
D. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 75 command.
E. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to SanJose1 because of the lower MED value of SanJose1.
F. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to SanJose2 because of the higher MED value of SanJose2.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch interface configuration command would automatically configure quality of service (QoS) for voice over IP (VoIP) within a QoS domain?
A. auto qos voip cisco-phone
B. mls qos trust
C. switchport priority extend cos 7
D. switchport priority extend trust
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?
e
A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 48.
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.
F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
What are three examples of call control signaling? (Choose three.)
A. MGCP
B. RTP
C. G.711
D. G.729
E. H.323
F. SIP
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Based on the exhibited output, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. R1 is configured with the ip summary-address command.
B. The route to 10.2.0.0
C. 16 was redistributed into EIGRP.
D. R1 is configured with the variance command.
E. A default route has been redistributed into the EIGRP autonomous system.
F. The router at 10.1.1.2 is configured with the ip default-network 0.0.0.0 command.
G. R1 is sourcing an external EIGRP route from Null0.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 68
What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?
A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.112.
D. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.111.
E. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
F. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration in the exhibit?
A. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
B. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
C. IGMP version 2 is being used.
D. CGMP version 2 is being used.
E. The switch will use sparse mode first, dense mode second.
F. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which two statements are true about using IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously on a network segment? (Choose two.)
A. Hosts can be configured to receive both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses via DHCP.
B. Host configuration options for IPv4 can be either statically assigned or assigned via DHCP. Host configuration options for IPv6 can be statically assigned only.
C. IPv6 allows a host to create its own IPv6 address that will allow it to communicate to other devices on a network configured via DHCP. IPv4 does not provide a similar capability for hosts.
D. IPv4 and IPv6 addresses can be simultaneously assigned to a host but not to a router interface.
E. IPv6 provides for more host IP addresses but IPv4 provides for more network addresses.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the information that is given, how will voice traffic from the phone and data traffic from the PC be handled by SW_1?
A. The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress voice and data traffic that comes into the switch port.
B. The switch port will perform marking for the ingress voice and data traffic by using the default CoS value at the switch port.
C. The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress voice traffic. Data traffic will be marked at the switch port with the default CoS value.
D. The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress data traffic. Voice traffic will be marked at the switch port with the default CoS value.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74
What is the IPv6 address FF02::2 used for?
A. all hosts in a local segment
B. all routers in a local segment
C. all hosts in a particular multicast group
D. all routers in an autonomous system
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
What is one method that can be used to prevent VLAN hopping?
A. Configure ACLs.
B. Enforce username
C. password combinations.
D. Configure all frames with two 802.1Q headers.
E. Explicitly turn off Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) on all unused ports.
F. Configure VACLs.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
Which command will display EIGRP packets sent and received, as well as statistics on hello packets, updates, queries, replies, and acknowledgments?
A. debug eigrp packets
B. show ip eigrp traffic
C. debug ip eigrp
D. show ip eigrp interfaces
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
When an attacker is using switch spoofing to perform VLAN hopping, how is the attacker able to gather information?
A. The attacking station uses DTP to negotiate trunking with a switch port and captures all traffic that is allowed on the trunk
B. The attacking station tags itself with all usable VLANs to capture data that is passed through the switch, regardless of the VLAN to which the data belongs.
C. The attacking station will generate frames with two 802.1Q headers to cause the switch to forward the frames to a VLAN that would be inaccessible to the attacker through legitimate means.
D. The attacking station uses VTP to collect VLAN information that is sent out and then tags itself with the domain information in order to capture the data.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the output from the show standby vlan 50 command? (Choose two.)
A. The command standby 1 preempt was added to Catalyst_A.
B. Catalyst_A is load sharing traffic in VLAN 50.
C. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.2 will have their traffic sent to Catalyst_A.
D. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1 will have their traffic sent to 192.168.1.11 even after Catalyst_A becomes available again.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Which three IP multicast address related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
D. Because they would map to overlapping IP multicast MAC addresses, multicast addresses 224.0.1.1 and 238.1.1.1 could not be used together.
E. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
F. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Which three statements are true about EIGRP route summarization? (Choose three.)
A. Manual route summarization is configured in router configuration mode when the router is configured for EIGRP routing.
B. Manual route summarization is configured on the interface.
C. When manual summarization is configured, the summary route will use the metric of the largest specific metric of the summary routes.
D. The ip summary-address eigrp command generates a default route with an administrative distance of
90.
E. The ip summary-address eigrp command generates a default route with an administrative distance of
5.
F. When manual summarization is configured, the router immediately creates a route that points to null0 interface.
Correct Answer: BEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Which two WLAN client utility statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. In a Windows XP environment, a client adapter can only be configured and managed with the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to enable or disable the adapter radio and to configure LEAP authentication with dynamic WEP.
C. The Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can both be enabled at the same time to setup WLAN client cards.
D. The Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be configured to display the Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) icon in the Windows system tray.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
An IPv6 overlay tunnel is required to communicate with isolated IPv6 networks across an IPv4 infrastructure. There are currently five IPv6 overlay tunnel types. Which three IPv6 overlay tunnel statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Overlay tunnels can only be configured between border routers capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
B. Overlay tunnels can be configured between border routers or between a border router and a host capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
C. Cisco IOS supports manual, generic routing encapsulation (GRE), IPv6-compatible, 4to6, and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) overlay tunneling mechanisms.
D. Cisco IOS supports manual, generic routing encapsulation (GRE), IPv4-compatible, 6to4, and Intra-Site Automatic Tunnel Addressing Protocol (ISATAP) overlay tunneling mechanisms.
E. An manual overlay tunnel supports point-to-multipoint tunnels capable of carrying IPv6 and Connectionless Network Service (CLNS) packets.
F. Overlay tunneling encapsulates IPv6 packets in IPv4 packets for delivery across an IPv4 infrastructure.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is enabled on all routers on the network. What additional configuration is required for the routers connected over the Frame Relay multipoint interfaces to compensate for a low-speed NBMA connection?
A. Configure the EIGRP hello interval on all Frame Relay interfaces to 5 seconds.
B. Configure the EIGRP hello interval on all Frame Relay interfaces to 60 seconds.
C. Configure the EIGRP hold time on all Frame Relay interfaces to 15 seconds.
D. Configure the EIGRP hold time on all Frame Relay interfaces to 180 seconds.
E. Configure the bandwidth on all EIGRP Frame Relay interfaces to the committed information rate (CIR).
F. Configure the bandwidth on all EIGRP Frame Relay interfaces to the lowest CIR multiplied by the number of PVCs for the multipoint connection.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host B and Host F are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which statement is true?
A. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
B. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 1 is the rendezvous of the multicast tree.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 89
Which two statements about HSRP priority are true? (Choose two.)
A. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 90
Which statement is true about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)?
A. The control traffic between the client and the access point is encapsulated with the LWAPP.
B. Data traffic between the client and the access point is encapsulated with LWAPP.
C. Authentication, security, and mobility are handled by the access point.
D. Real-time frame exchange is accomplished within the access point.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Which two are characteristics of the IS-IS protocol but not OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. provides for network scalability by allowing the network to be separated into areas
B. provides routing support for multiple network layer protocols
C. three layers of hierarchical routing
D. utilizes SPF algorithm
E. forms adjacencies with all neighbors
F. supports demand circuit routing
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which two statements are true about the operation of voice VLANs on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
A. Enabling voice VLANs enables the switch to create multiple queues for traffic that is entering a port.
B. Enabling voice VLANs enables the switch to forward frames with a specific 802.1P marking.
C. Voice VLANs are configured to enable the switch to forward frames marked with the proper CoS values over separate physical links.
D. When voice VLANs are configured on a trunk link, UplinkFast must also be enabled.
E. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol establishes an optimal path to the root in a wireless mesh network?
A. WLAN Quality of Service (WQoS)
B. 802.1Q WLAN trunking protocol
C. Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)
D. Layer 2 Roaming (IAPP)
E. Adaptive Wireless Path (AWP)
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which statement is true about IPv6?
A. Only one IPv6 address is assigned per node.
B. Only one IPv6 address can be assigned to each interface.
C. Each host can autoconfigure its address without the aid of a DHCP server.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
Which command displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured?
A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp paths
C. show ip bgp peers
D. show ip bgp summary
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration is reflected in the output that is displayed in the exhibit?
A. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco in ! access-list 66 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set local-preference 90
B. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco out ! access-list 66 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set metric 90
C. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco out ! access-list 66 permit 10.30.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set metric 90
D. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco in ! access-list 66 permit 10.30.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set local-preference 90
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which three components are included in the Cisco autonomous WLAN solution? (Choose three.)
A. Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)
B. Access Control Server (ACS)
C. Wireless Control System (WCS)
D. Wireless Services Module (WiSM)
E. Wireless Domain Services (WDS)
F. Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0
D. 16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
E. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0
F. 24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
G. The route to 224.69.15.0
H. 24 will be out Ethernet 0.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
For the accompanying router output, which of the following statements describes the state that neighbor
172.16.254.3 is in?
A. The router will not accept connections from the peer.
B. The router has sent out an active TCP connection request to the peer.
C. The router is listening on its server port for connection requests from the peer.
D. BGP can exchange routing information in this state.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator consoles into the ASw1 switch and attempts to save the switch configuration to the TFTP server that is located at IP address 10.1.2.10/24. However, whenever the copy running-config tftp command is issued with default options on switch ASw1, an error is produced. Which configuration would correct this situation?
A. ASw1# copy tftp running-config
B. ASw1(config)# interface range fastethernet 0/1 – 24 ASw1(config-if-range)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
C. RTA(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 RTA(config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
D. RTA(config)# interface fastethernet0/1 RTA(config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
E. RTA(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 RTA(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.1.2.10
F. RTA(config)# interface fastethernet0/1 RTA(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.1.2.10
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
