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QUESTION 1
Which statement about IPv6 ND inspection is true?
A. It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.
B. It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.
C. It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.
D. It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.
Correct Answer: B
IPv6 ND inspection learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.
IPv6 ND inspection analyzes neighbor discovery messages in order to build a trusted binding table database and IPv6
neighbor discovery messages that do not have valid bindings are dropped. A neighbor discovery message is considered
trustworthy if its IPv6-to-MAC mapping isverifiable.
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QUESTION 1
Which scripts will search a log file for the IP address of 192.168.100.100 and create an output file named
parsed_host.log while printing results to the console?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. According to the SNORT alert, what is the attacker performing?
A. brute-force attack against the web application user accounts
B. XSS attack against the target webserver
C. brute-force attack against directories and files on the target webserver
D. SQL injection attack against the target webserver
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. After a cyber-attack, an engineer is analyzing an alert that was missed on the intrusion detection
system. The attack exploited a vulnerability in a business-critical, web-based application and violated itsavailability.
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
Which function does the EXPOSE line perform when building an image from this Dockerfile?
A. Local port 8080 of the container that launched with this docker image is accessible from co-hosted containers and
external clients.
B. Local port 8080 is not reachable at all because no IP address is specified along with the EXPOSE command of the
Dockerfile.
C. Local port 8080 is accessible from other containers running on the same docker host as the container that launched
with this docker image.
D. Local port 8080 of the container that launched with this docker image is accessible to external clients.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the function of the Python script?
A. Loop through the returned list of network devices and, for each device, print the device name and management IP
address.
B. Count and print the total number of available devices.
C. For each device that is returned, display the device type and associated management IP address.
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QUESTION 1
Which function does an SNMP agent perform?
A. It sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS
B. It manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network
C. It coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server
D. It requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?
A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats
B. Both cable types support LP connectors
C. Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors
D. Both support up to 550 meters between nodes
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which type of attack is mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?
A. DDoS
B. malware
C. man-in-the-middle
D. worm
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
What does physical access control regulate?
A. access to spec fie networks based on business function
B. access to servers to prevent malicious activity
C. access 😮 computer networks and file systems
D. access to networking equipment and facilities
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to
deployment?
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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the access control models from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
QUESTION 2
Which two elements are used for profiling a network? (Choose two.)
A. session duration
B. total throughput
C. running processes
D. listening ports
E. OS fingerprint
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 3
At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?
A. internet
B. transport
C. application
D. data link
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.
QUESTION 5
One of the objectives of information security is to protect the CIA of information and systems.
What does CIA mean in this context?
A. confidentiality, identity, and authorization
B. confidentiality, integrity, and authorization
C. confidentiality, identity, and availability
D. confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
What is the difference between an attack vector and attack surface?
A. An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vector identifies
vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.
» Read more about: What to learn | How do I prepare for the Cisco 200-201 (CBROPS) exam »
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QUESTION 1
What are two standard fiber-optic connectors? (Choose two.)
A. Lucent
B. rollover
C. subscriber
D. multidimension
E. crossover
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2
Which layer of the OSI model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is
controlled?
A. presentation
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://itcertzone.wordpress.com/2011/01/24/the-seven-layers-of-theosimodel/#:~:text=Layer%202%3A%20The%20Data%20Link,reliable%20delivery%20of%20the%20data.
QUESTION 3
Which command sends an echo request packet to the target host and then waits for an echo response message?
A. echo
B. access
C. ping
D. connect
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
What does Cisco use for Return Materials Authorization tracking of field-replaceable parts?
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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about Cisco UCS 6454 Fabric Interconnect are true? (Choose two.)
A. 1-RU 10/25/40/100/200/400 Gigabit Ethernet, FCoE, and Fibre Channel switch offers up to 32 ports.
B. It hosts and runs Cisco Integrated Management Controller (CIMC).
C. All Ethernet ports can support FCoE.
D. Provides the management and communication backbone for the Cisco UCS 5108 Server Chassis and Cisco UCS BSeries Blade Servers only.
E. Provides both the LAN and SAN connectivity for all servers within its domain.
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://www.cdw.com/product/cisco-ucs-6454-fabric-interconnect-switch-54-ports-managed-rackmou/5400879
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about QSFP?
A. The four 10 Gbit/sec channels that QSFP+ supports can be combined into a single 40 Gigabit Ethernet link.
B. QSFP-DD stands for Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable Double Distance.
C. The QSFP+ offers higher data speed than QSFP28.
D. 100GBASE-SR4 supports a much longer distance than 100GBASE-LR4.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)
A. Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B. Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
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QUESTION 1
When web policies are configured in Cisco Umbrella, what provides the ability to ensure that domains are blocked when
they host malware, command and control, phishing, and more threats?
A. Application Control
B. Security Category Blocking
C. Content Category Blocking
D. File Analysis
Correct Answer: B
https://support.umbrellA.com/hc/en-us/articles/115004563666-Understanding-Security-Categories
QUESTION 2
Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?
A. dot1x system-auth-control
B. dot1x pae authenticator
C. authentication port-control auto
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/nfvis/switch_command/b-nfvisswitchcommandreference/802_1x_commands.html
QUESTION 3
What is a difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN?
A. FlexVPN uses IKEvI or IKEv2. DMVPN uses only IKEv2
B. DMVPN uses only IKEvI FlexVPN uses only IKEv2.
C. DMVPN uses IKEvI or IKEv2. FlexVPN only uses IKEvI
D. FlexVPN uses IKEv2. DMVPN uses IKEvI or IKEv2.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new Cisco FTD device to their network and wants to manage it with
Cisco FMC. The Cisco FTD uses a registration key of Cisc392481137 and is not behind a NAT device. Which command
is needed to enable this on the Cisco FTD?
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QUESTION 1
An engineer must configure a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on
the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an ethernet interface. Which additional configuration must be made on the tunnel
interface?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What is provided by the Stealthwatch component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution?
A. real-time threat management to stop DDoS attacks to the core and access networks
B. real-time awareness of users, devices and traffic on the network
C. malware control
D. dynamic threat control for web traffic
Correct Answer: B
Cisco Stealthwatch is a comprehensive, network telemetry-based, security monitoring and analytics solution that
streamlines incident response through behavioral analysis; detecting denial of service attacks, anomalous behaviour,
malicious
activity and insider threats. Based on a scalable enterprise architecture, Stealthwatch provides near real-time situational
awareness of all users and devices on the network.
Reference: https://www.endace.com/cisco-stealthwatch-solution-brief.pdf
Note: Although answer A seems to be correct but in fact, Stealthwatch does not provide real-time protection for DDoS
attack. It just helpsdetect DDoS attack only.
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
How many maximum hops can an ILS update traverse?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
An administrator is implementing a new dial-plan on Cisco Unified Border Element. The administrator must ensure that
incoming dial-peers are matched based on the IP address from where the incoming request originates.
Which dial-peer configuration should be applied to accomplish this requirement?
A. dial-peer voice 1 voip incoming url via
B. dial-peer voice 1 voip incoming url request
C. dial-peer voice 1 voip incoming called-number
D. dial-peer voice 1 voip incoming url to
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which two types of distribution algorithm are within a line group? (Choose two.)
A. random
B. circular
C. highest preference
D. top down
E. bottom up
Correct Answer: BD
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/9_0_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_CDF59AFB_00_admin-guide-90/CUCM_BK_CDF59AFB_00_adminguide_chapter_0100011.html
QUESTION 4
Which two configuration parameters are prerequisites to set Native Call Queuing on Cisco Unified Communications
Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Service must be activated on at least one node in the cluster.
B. A unicast music on hold audio source must be configured.
C. Cisco RIS data collector service must be running on the same server as the Cisco CallManager service.
D. The maximum number of callers allowed in queue must be 10.
E. The phone button template must have the Queue Status Softkey configured.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/12_0_1/systemConfig/cucm_b_systemconfiguration-guide-1201/cucm_b_system-configurationguide1201_chapter_01001101.html#CUCM_RF_C960BC9A_00
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured a SIP trunk between two Cisco UCM clusters. For calls that should
use the trunk, the calls fail with a fast busy. The administrator checks the Cisco CallManager SDL traces and found that
the cluster to which the calling device is registered never sends an INVITE to the destination cluster. The administrator
also verifies that all nodes from both clusters are powered on, and the CallManager service is running. How is this issue
resolved?
A. The administrator must associate the route pattern with a calling search space the device can dial.
B. The administrator needs to enable OPTIONS pings on the SIP trunks for both clusters.
C. The administrator must allow connectivity so that TCP connections do not fail between the nodes.
D. The administrator needs to disable OPTIONS pings on the SIP trunks for both clusters.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
An engineer must configure call queuing under a Hunt Pilot. After the engineer receives the audio file that will be played
to callers during queuing, which two steps should be taken to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Assign the uploaded audio file to the hunting Line Group member\\’s » Read more about: [July -2021] Latest Cisco 300-815 actual exam questions for free, 300-815 exam discount »