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QUESTION 1
Which feature must be configured to connect a classical Ethernet network to a data center network so that the data
center network appears to be one large switch?
A. vPC+
B. UDLD
C. EVPN
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which type fields can an engineer use to identify an iSCSI participant? (Choose two.)
A. type
B. preshared key
C. port number
D. identifying tag
E. hostname
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ISCSI
QUESTION 3
What is a design consideration when implementing FSPF?
A. Routes are based on the domain ID.
B. Routes are based on the distance vector protocol.
C. FSPF runs only on F Ports.
D. FSPF runs on a per-chassis basis.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_0/configuration/guides/fabric/nxos/cli_fabric/fspf.html
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the components from the left onto the descriptions on the right that indicate what occurs to Fibre Channel
fabric when that component fails.
QUESTION 5
What can be implemented on Cisco Nexus 5600 Series Switches for link redundancy within a Fibre Channel fabric?
A. vPC+
B. E-Trunk
C. SAN port channel
D. LACP port channel
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
An engineer must connect an existing Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect to an IP-based storage array. The connection
must be a port channel made directly between the fabric interconnect expansion module and the storage array. The
engineer must also consider that the environment is running FCoE for storage and uses QoS to prioritize traffic.
Which port type should be used to meet these requirements?
A. network
B. uplink
C. server
D. appliance
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which two statements describe Ethernet switching mode on Cisco UCS 6100 Series Fabric Interconnects? (Choose
two.)
A. STP runs on the uplink ports of each VLAN, as defined by PVSTP+.
B. STP runs on the uplink ports of each VLAN, as defined by MSTP.
C. The STP parameter configuration is unsupported.
D. The STP parameter configuration is supported.
E. STP runs on the server ports.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified-computing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html
QUESTION 8
An engineer deploys LISP VM mobility.
Which feature is configured on the interfaces that have VM mobility enabled?
A. IP redirects
B. flow control
C. proxy ARP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/lisp/configuration/guide/b_NXOS_LISP_Configuration_Guide/b_NX-OS_LISP_Configuration_Guide_chapter_010.html
QUESTION 9
Which orchestration tool provides a graphical interface to manage LAN and SAN fabrics?
A. Cisco Virtual Topology System
B. Cisco Data Center Network Manager
C. Cisco Nexus Fabric Manager
D. Cisco CloudCenter
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/DCNM_OLH/SAN_Client/fmhelp/fmc.html#34479
QUESTION 10
An engineer is implementing management access to a Cisco Nexus platform. The customer requires a solution that
provides isolation between the data and control planes, in addition to management that uses encryption and
authentication. The customer will manage the device using both IPv4 and IPv6.
Which two components should be used to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. mgmt0 interface
B. SSH protocol
C. SNMP
D. SVI interface
E. Telnet protocol
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11
What is the disadvantage of asynchronous storage replication as compared to synchronous storage replication in a
disaster recovery design? » Read more about: [July -2021] Latest Cisco 300-610 actual exam questions for free, 300-610 exam discount »
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QUESTION 1
You have configured routing policies on a Cisco IOS XR device with routing policy language.
Which two statements about the routing policies are true? (Choose two.)
A. The routing policies affect BGP-related routes only.
B. If you make edits to an existing routing policy without pasting the full policy into the CLI, the previous policy is
overwritten.
C. You can change an existing routing policy by editing individual statements.
D. The routing policies are implemented in a sequential manner.
E. The routing policies are implemented using route maps.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. A customer reports that Host-1 is failing to receive streaming traffic from the IPTV source. The
engineer has confirmed that hosts on router R2 are receiving traffic normally and that Host-1 is correctly sending
subscription messages to join the IPTV stream. Which action must the engineer take to correct the problem?
A. Remove IP PIM SSM and IGMP from interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 on R3 and configure under global configuration
B. Configure IGMP version 3 under interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 on R3
C. Configure IP PIM SSM and IGMP version 2 under interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 on R3
D. Remove IP PIM SSM from the global configuration on R3 and configure it under the GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 interface
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which router does R1 install as an alternate next hop when trying to reach R3 if LFA is enabled?
A. R5
B. R3
C. R4
D. R2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Referring to the topology diagram show in the exhibit, which three statements are correct regarding the BGP routing
updates? (Choose three.)
A. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2, R4, and R7 routers
B. The EBGP routing updates received by R3 from R6 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
C. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
D. The IBGP routing updates received by R3 from R2 will be propagated to the R6 router
E. The IBGP routing updates received by R2 from R1 will be propagated to the R3 router
F. The IBGP routing updates received by R1 from R4 will be propagated to the R5, R7, and R2 routers
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting BGP traffic steering issue, which action did the network operator take to
achieve the correct effect of thisconfiguration?
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QUESTION 1
A user is trying to connect to a wireless network that is configured for WPA2-Enterprise security using a corporate
laptop. The CA certificate for the authentication server has been installed on the Trusted Root Certification Authorities
store on the laptop. The user has been prompted to enter the credentials multiple times, but the authentication has not
succeeded. What is causing the issue?
A. There is an IEEE invalid 802.1X authentication policy on the authentication server.
B. The user Active Directory account is locked out after several failed attempts.
C. There is an invalid 802.1X authentication policy on the authenticator.
D. The laptop has not received a valid IP address from the wireless controller.
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Security/TrustSec_199/Dot1X_Deployment/Dot1x_Dep_Guide.html
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
The network management team in a large shopping center has detected numerous rogue APs from local coffee shops
that are broadcasting SSIDs. All of these SSIDs have names starting with ATC (for example, ATC302, ATC011, and
ATC566). A wireless network engineer must appropriately classify these SSIDs using the Rogue Rules feature. Drag
and drop the options from the left onto the categories in which they must be used on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3
Which two configurations are applied on the WLC to enable multicast, check multicast stream subscriptions, and stream
content only to subscribed clients? (Choose two)
A. Enable IGMP snooping
B. Set the IGMP timeout to 180 seconds
C. Enable broadcast forwarding
D. Enable 802.3x flow control mode.
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QUESTION 1
What are two benefits of designing an SD-WAN network fabric with direct Internet access implemented at every site?
(Choose two.)
A. It decreases latency to applications hosted by public cloud service provider.
B. It decreases latency on Internet circuits.
C. It increases the speed of delivery of site deployments through zero-touch provisioning.
D. It increases the total available bandwidth on Internet circuits.
E. It alleviates network traffic on MPLS circuits.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2
How is redundancy achieved among Cisco vBond Orchestrators in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?
A. The IP addresses of all Orchestrators are mapped to a single DNS name.
B. The closest Orchestrator to each Cisco WAN Edge router is selected.
C. Cisco WAN Edge routers are configured with all Orchestrators using their IP addresses and priority.
D. A single Cisco Orchestrator is deployed in each network.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which two BGP features will result in successful route exchanges between eBGP neighbors sharing the same AS
number? (Choose two.)
A. advertise-best-external
B. bestpath as-path ignore
C. client-to-client reflection
D. as-override
E. allow-as-in
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 4
When vEdge router redundancy is designed, which FHRP is supported?
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QUESTION 1
Which type of route advertisement of OMP can be verified?
A. Origin, TLOC, and VPN
B. Origin, TLOC, and service
C. OMP, VPN, and origin
D. OMP, TLOC, and service
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Software_Features/Release_18.2/03Routing/01Unicast_Overlay_Routing_Overview#OMP_Route_Advertisements
QUESTION 2
Which two products are used to deploy Cisco WAN Edge Router virtual platforms? (Choose two.)
A. HP ProLiant DL360 Generatton10 running HP-UX
B. Cisco ENCS 5000 Series
C. Sun SPARC Node running AIX
D. Cisco UCS
E. Sun Enterprise M4000 Server running Sun Solans
Correct Answer: BD
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/routers/5400-enterprise-network-compute-system/datasheetc78-738512.html
QUESTION 3
An engineer is tasked to improve throughput for connection-oriented traffic by decreasing round-trip latency Which
configuration will achieve this goal?
A. turn on “Enable TCP Optimization”
B. turn off “Enhance ECMP Keying”
C. turn off “Enable TCP Optimization”
D. turn on “Enhance ECMP Keying”
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the route verification output from show omp tlocs from the left onto the correct explanations on the right.
Select and Place:
QUESTION 5
Which protocol is used to measure loss, latency, jitter, and liveliness of the tunnel between WAN Edge router peers?
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused
instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to deny when
redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.
B. Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to allow
when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.
C. Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing
domain.
D. Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF.
Correct Answer: A
When doing mutual redistribution at multiple points (between OSPF and EIGRP on R1 and R2), we may create routing
loops so we should use route-map to prevent redistributed routes from redistributing again into the original domain. In
the below example, the route-map “SET-TAG” is used to prevent any routes that have been redistributed into EIGRP
from redistributed again into OSPF domain by tagging these routes with tag 1:
QUESTION 2
Which two statements about redistributing EIGRP into OSPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database
B. The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as type 5 LSAs in the OSPF database
C. The administrative distance of the redistributed routes is 170
D. The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as OSPF external type 1
E. The redistributed EIGRP routes as placed into an OSPF area whose area ID matches the EIGRP autonomous
system number
F. The redistributed EIGRP routes appear as OSPF external type 2 routes in the routing table
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer wanted to set a tag of 30 to route 10 1.80.65/32 but it failed How is the issue fixed?
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QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of a MAC address?
A. to uniquely identify a switch in a LAN
B. to uniquely identify a router in a LAN
C. to uniquely identify a network interface in a LAN
D. to uniquely identify a device on the Internet
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the Cisco VIRL software tool?
A. to verify configurations against compliance standards
B. to automate API workflows
C. to simulate and model networks
D. to test performance of an application
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.speaknetworks.com/cisco-virl-better-gns3/
QUESTION 3
Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports
“time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?
A. A router along the path has the wrong time.
B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in a wrong direction.
C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.
D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
A company has written a script that creates a log bundle from the Cisco DNA Center every day. The script runs without
error and the log bundles are produced. However, when the script is run during business hours, people report poor
voice quality of phone calls. What explains thisbehavior?
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
A. 0
B. 110
C. 38443
D. 3184439
Correct Answer: C
Both the line “O 172.16.0.128/25” and “S 172.16.0.0/24” cover the host 172.16.0.202 but with the “longest (prefix)
match” rule the router will choose the first route.
QUESTION 2
When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?
A. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the
lowest bandwidth.
B. It counts the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the route with the lowest
metric.
C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the exiting interface to calculate the route
with the lowest cost.
D. It multiples the active K values by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router?
A. show ipv6 interface
B. show access-list
C. show ipv6 access-list
D. show ipv6 route
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing
Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?
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QUESTION 1
What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode?
(Choose two.)
A. When the Cisco WSA is running in transparent mode, it uses the WSA\\’s own IP address as the HTTP request
destination.
B. The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.
C. The Cisco WSA is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.
D. The Cisco WSA uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.
E. The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
Why is it important to have logical security controls on endpoints even though the users are trained to spot security
threats and the network devicesalready help prevent them?
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QUESTION 1
An engineer must ensure fabric redundancy when implementing NPV mode on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch. Which
action enables fabric redundancy?
A. Connect the NPV devices to multiple upstream switches.
B. Add a port channel to upstream switches.
C. Configure the NPV devices to use on external FLOGI database.
D. Use TE ports to connect to upstream switches.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the NAS protocols on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
