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QUESTION 1
Which three primary functions are required to secure communication across network links? (Choose three.)
A. accounting
B. anti-replay protection
C. authentication
D. authorization
E. confidentiality
F. integrity
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 2
Which two encryption algorithms are commonly used to encrypt the contents of a message? (Choose two.)
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. IPsec
D. PKI
E. SHA1
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
An administrator requires a PKI that supports a longer lifetime for keys used for digital signing operations than for keys used for encrypting data. Which feature should the PKI support?
A. certificate keys
B. nonrepudiation keys
C. usage keys
D. variable keys
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Two users must authenticate each other using digital certificates and a CA. Which option describes the CA authentication procedure?
A. The CA is always required, even after user verification is complete.
B. The users must obtain the certificate of the CA and then their own certificate.
C. After user verification is complete, the CA is no longer required, even if one of the involved certificates expires.
D. CA certificates are retrieved out-of-band using the PSTN, and the authentication is done in-band over a network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
A customer purchases an item from an e-commerce site. The e-commerce site must maintain proof that the data exchange took place between the site and the customer. Which feature of digital signatures is required?
A. authenticity of digitally signed data
B. integrity of digitally signed data
C. nonrepudiation of the transaction
D. confidentiality of the public key
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
What is the basic method used by 3DES to encrypt plaintext?
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QUESTION 65
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Within the “sdm-permit” policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class “class-default”?
A. inspect
B. pass
C. drop
D. police
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Which policy map is associated to the “sdm-zp-in-out” security zone pair?
A. sdm-permit-icmpreply
B. sdm-permit
C. sdm-inspect
D. sdm-insp-traffic
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Within the “sdm-inspect” policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class “sdm-invalid-src”, and which traffic is matched by the traffic class “sdm-invlid-src” ? (Choose two.)
A. traffic matched by ACL 100
B. traffic matched by the nested “sdm-cls-insp-traffic” class map
C. inspect/log
D. traffic matched by ACL 104
E. Drop/Log
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 68
Which one is the most important based on the following common elements of a network design?
A. Business needs
B. Best practices C. Risk analysis
D. Security policy
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
Examine the following items, which one offers a variety of security solutions, including firewall, IPS, VPN, antispyware, antivirus, and antiphishing features?
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QUESTION 71
Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?
A. cpstat – date.cpstat.txt
B. fw cpinfo
C. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt
D. diag
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
A. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.
B. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.
C. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server.
D. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of a SecurePlatform Security Gateway.
Explanation: Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73 How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A. fw delete all.all@localhost
B. fw unload policy
C. fwm unloadlocal
D. fw unloadlocal
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 74
How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?
A. clish -c show routing active enable
B. ipsofwd list
C. cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
Which command allows you to view the contents of an R76 table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>
B. fw tab -t <tablename>
C. fw tab -x <tablename>
D. fw tab -a <tablename>
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R76 configuration report?
A. infoCP
B. cpinfo
C. infoview
D. fw cpinfo
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
Which of the following isa CLI command for Security Gateway R76?
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QUESTION 47
Your Maluti University (MU) data center design uses a single Switch 8814 to support the campus backbone, the server farm and the wiring-closet connections in Building 9. Which four current Switch 8800 features address Maluti Univerisity (MU) network requirements? (Choose four)
A. With no single point of failure, the switch creates a reliable, high-availablity solution
B. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
C. Support integrated Services (IntServ) and RSVP to provide flow-based, fine-grain control over network traffic.
D. With the load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric, the switch has a maximum aggregated throughput of more than 400 Mpps
E. Multiple priority features will ensure key applications receive the best network response, i.e; eight priority queues per port, Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) queuing and DiffServ support.
F. IEEE 802.1X network Login and Authentication, Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by establishing what services employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 48
Which 3Com solution would you recommend for the Maluti University (MU) data center in Building 9 to create the highly-redundant campus backbone connecting the four distribution buildings?
A. Option A -One Switch 7700 8-Slot Chassis Starter Kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) Eight 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CGBIC91)
B. Option B -One Switch 8810 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) Eight 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CGBIC92)
C. Option C -One Switch 8814 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) Eight 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92)
-One Switch 8800 360 Gbps Fabric Module (3C17508)
D. Option D -One Switch 8814 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) -Eight 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) -Two Switch 8800 360 Gbps Fabric Modules (3C17508)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
If you recommended the 3Com Switch 8800 for Maluti University (MU) data center solution in Building 9, which Switch 8800 interface-module solution would you use to connect the Satellite Buildings to the data center switch?
A. One 24-port 10/100/1000BASE-T Module (3C17516)
B. Multiple 2-port 10 GBASE-X modules (3C17512) with 10GBASE-ER XENPAK transceivers
C. One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17513) with multiple 1000BASE-LH SFP Transceivers (3CSFP97)
D. One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17513) with multiple 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
You recommended a 1000BASE-X campus-backbone solution to Maluti University (MU) to connect the four distribution buildings to the data center MU is concerned that the 1000BASE-X campus backbone will not provide enough network bandwidth to support its combined data/voice network traffic. Which solution would you recommend to MU to alleviate thisconcern?
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QUESTION 47
Which two are general Link Aggregation (LA) configuration rules that must be followed when creating an LA group? (Choose two.)
A. A member link port can only belong to one LA group
B. Aggregated links are mutually exclusive with roving analysis and mirror ports
C. A port must be configured for resilient links before it can be configured as a member of an LA group
D. LA ports can only be configured if Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) is enabled on the switches
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 48
Which Switch 8800 Fabric Status LED condition indicates the Fabric Module is powered-up and operating normally?
A. SFS LED is on
B. ACT LED is green
C. RUN LED is green
D. ACT LED is blinking green
E. RUN LED is blinking green
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
Which two are required to define an ACL on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose two.)
A. Create the ACL exception table
B. Enable the ACL on the switch port
C. Enter the ACL view and add the ACL rule(s)
D. For numbered ACL, specify the ACL number
E. For Layer 2 ACLs, configure the IP source/destination address
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 50
What is the effect of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) switch command nmp-agent target-host trap address udp-domainWhat is the effect of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) switch command ?nmp-agent target-host trap address udp-domain 129.102.149.23 udp-port 5000 params securityname 3comprivate?
A. Configures the switch with a default community string name of 3comprivate
B. Enables the SNMP trap functions on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
C. Configures the switch SNMP agent to send traps to the network management station at IP address
129.102.149.23
D. Enables the SNMP trap functions and sets the default community string name of 3compublic on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 47
Click the Task button.
Choose the 3Com switch you would use for the Maluti University (MU) server farm solution.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 48
If you chose the Switch 5500G-EI 24 port model (3CR17250-91) for the Maluti University (MU) distribution centers, which solution would you use to connect the distribution center to the wiring closets on the upper floors?
A. Use the 10/100/1000BASE-T switch ports to connect the switch to the wiring closets
B. Use 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers on the SFP gigabit ports to connect the switch to the wiring closets
C. Use the 1-port 10G Application Media Module with 10GBASE-LR XFP Transceiver to connect the switch to the wiring closets
D. Use 3Com’s eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Distributed Fabric technology to connect the switch to the wiring closets
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
You recommended a 1000BASE-X campus-backbone solution to Maluti University (MU) to connect the four distribution buildings to the data center. MU is concerned that the 1000BASE-X campus backbone will not provide enough network bandwidth to support its combined data/voice network traffic. Which solution would you recommend to MU to alleviate this concern?
A. Use VLAN segmentation to reduce the traffic that traverses the campus backbone
B. Distribute the 28 servers, currently located in Building 9 data center, throughout the network to reduce campus-backbone traffic
C. Use the Switch 8800 in the data center and the Switch 7700 in the distribution centers, with 10 Gig Ethernet connections between the switches
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which wiring closet solution would you use to connect the Maluti University (MU) desktop devices?
A. Switch 5500-SI 28/52 port model
B. Switch 5500-EI 28 port FX model
C. Switch 5500-EI PWR 28/52 port model
D. Switch 5500G-EI PWR 24/48 port model
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION: 21
Which command-line tool can you use to create a disk image ?
A. mkdmg
B. hdiutil
C. diskutil
D. createimage
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
You want to use an ASR image to restore a Mac OS X v10.6 operating system to 20 networked
computers.
Which procedure will perform this task?
A. Start up the target computers from their hard disks. Then use ASR multicast on another computer to restore the volumes.
B. Start up the target computers from the ASR image using NetBoot services, then selectRestore Target Volumes when prompted.
C. Start up the target computers from a NetBoot image with diskless booting enabled, then use ASR multicast on another computer to restore the volumes.
D. Start up the target computers from a NetBoot image with diskless booting disabled, then use ASR multicast on another computer to restore the volumes.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
On a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer, where does the Software Update service store updates?
A. /usr/updates/
B. /library/Updates/
C. /usr/share/swupd/html/
D. /Library/WebServer/Updates/
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which file or folder in a bundle-based installation package contains the files that the installation package will install ?
A. Info.plist
B. Archieve.bom
C. Archive pax.gz
D. Resources folder
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
You have encrypted the configuration data in an auto setup file for a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer.
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QUESTION 21
You want to manage users’ use of CDs in your computer lab. Which preference pane in Workgroup Manager lets you prevent inserted CDs from mounting?
A. Finder
B. Mobility
C. Applications
D. Media Access
E. System Preferences
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
You want to remove the MCX data from a Mac OS Xv10.4 workstation. In which TWO of these locations is MCX data stored?
A. LDAP database
B. Netlnfo database
C. Berkeley DB file
D. ~/Library/Preferences/
E. /System/Library/Manifest/
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 23
On your directory server, you have created a network view named Science that is assigned to the Science Lab computer list. You have also created a Default and a Public view. Bob is using a portable computer that is not bound to the directory server and does not have the directory server in its search path. His computer is a member of the Science Lab computer list. Which network view will Bob see?
A. Default
B. Public
C. Science
D. none of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
On your directory server, you have created a network view named Science that is assigned to the Science Lab computer list. You have also created a Default and a Public view. John is using a computer that is bound to the directory server and has the directory server in its search path. His computer is not a member of the Science Lab computer list. Which network view will John see?
A. Default
B. Public
C. Science
D. none of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
You want to manage your users’ Internet activity. Which of these settings can you configure for users in the Web pane of Internet preferencesin Workgroup Manager?
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QUESTION 20
To make room on the boot drive of your QuickTime Streaming Server (QTSS), you move the QTSS media directory to a separate volume. In Server Admin you confirm that the path to the new directory is correct. You can play media from this directory locally on the server, but you are unable to stream the media in this directory from your server. What is the most likely cause?
A. The qtaccess file has been deleted.
B. The owner of the new directory is not system user “qtss”.
C. The server was not rebooted after the media directory was moved.
D. QuickTime does not recognize the format of the drive where the new directory is stored.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Where are QuickTime Streaming Server group accounts stored by default?
A. /var/db/netinfo/Iocal.nidb
B. /Library/QuickTimeStreaming/Config/qtgroups
C. /System/Library/QuickTimeStreaming/Config/qtgroups
D. /Library/Application Support/Apple/QuickTime/Streaming/Groups/qtgroups
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Users have subscribed to your podcast. What element will you need to update so that users can receive new episodes?
A. The URL associated with the enhanced podcast
B. The html web page associated with the podcast
C. The rss.xml feed file associated with the podcast
D. The metadata associated with previous podcast episodes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Which procedure will let you access an on-demand stream from a webpage?
A. Change the mime-type of the stream to “.mov” and enter the stream’s URL in the web browser, beginning with “rtsp://”.
B. Create a reference movie that redirects QuickTime Player to the streaming URL and embed the reference movie in your webpage.
C. Create a playlist in the default media directory on your web server and enter the stream’s URL in the web browser, beginning with “rtsp://”.
D. Embed a hinted version of your stream in a webpage and configure the QuickTime plug-in to autoplay the stream when the webpage loads.
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QUESTION 41
If e-mail is subject to review by individuals other than the sender and recipient, what should be clearly stated in the organization’s e-mail policy?
A. Technologies and methods used to monitor and enforce the organization’s policies
B. Senior management and business-unit owner responsibilities and delegation options
C. Clear, legally defensible definition of what constitutes a business record
D. Consequences for violation of the organization’s acceptable-use policy
E. No expectation of privacy for e-mail communications, using the organization’s resources
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 42
Which of the following are common failures that should be addressed in an organization’s Business Continuity Plan (BCP) ? (Choose THREE.)
A. Connectivity failures
B. Accounting failures
C. Hardware failures
D. Utility failures
E. Personal failures
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 43
Which TWO of the following items should be accomplished, when interviewing candidates for a position within an organization?
A. Hire an investigation agency to run background checks.
B. Verify all dates of previous employment.
C. Question candidates, using polygraphs.
D. Contact personal and professional references.
E. Run criminal-background checks.
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 44
A _______ _______ posture provides many levels of security possibilities, for access control.
A. Layered defensive
B. Multiple offensive
C. Flat defensive
D. Reactive defensive
E. Proactive offensive
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
At ABC Corporation, access to critical information resources, such as database and e-mail servers, is controlled by the information-technology (IT) department. The supervisor in the department grants access to printers where the printer is located. Managers grant and revoke rights to files within their departments’ directories on the file server, but the IT department controls who has access to the directories. Which type of access-management system is in use at ABC Corporation?
