leatest 3M0-600 exam dumps v2011-06-11_97q_By-Clinton
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 2
Which functionality is transferred from 3Com Access Points (APs) to the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/ Switch, creating Fit APs or Managed Access Points (MAPs) with the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System?
A. Radio frequency (RF) radio, encryption and roaming
B. Encryption, roaming and security policy
C. Authentication, roaming and security policy
D. Encryption, authentication, roaming and security policy
E. Encryption, authentication and security policy
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 802.11a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which three steps are required to configure a non-encrypted 3Com Wireless Distribution System? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure all access points (APs) are configured for Managed Access Point (MAP) mode
B. Copy the access points (APs) to the Wireless Distribution System (WDS) configuration
C. Configure the access points (APs) for bridge mode
D. Assign each access point (AP) the same IP address
E. Configure the access points (APs) for group mode
F. Assign each access point (AP) the same Service Set ID (SSID) and radio channels
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Arrange the steps to connect to a Wireless Network in Windows XP.
A.
B.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which term does not describe or refer to a frame relay function or parameter?
A. DE
B. CIR
C. DLCI
D. IPCP
E. FECN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button. In the diagram, which additional router command is needed to correctly configure CHAP?
A. [RTA] LCP Chap
B. [RTB] Chap enable
C. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
D. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
E. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp authentication-mode chap
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?
A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?
A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) – ON
A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which file system command displays the directory entries on a 3Com switch?
A. dir /all
B. cd dir /all
C. display dir
D. display dir /all
E. dir display /all
F. mkdir display /all
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the RIP View command network network_address?
A. Enables RIP on all switches with this network address
B. Enables RIP on the switch that is configured with this IP address
C. Displays all RIP routes associated with this network address or with a subnet of this address
D. Enables RIP on all interfaces that are configured with this network address or with a subnet of this address
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which two are Super-VLAN configuration requirements/limitations on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Up to 64 ports can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
B. Up to 64 Sub-VLANs can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
C. ARP, VRRP and DHCP are not supported on Super-VLANs
D. Sub-VLANs terminate at a router and are isolated at Layer 3
E. Super-VLANs are assigned an IP address; Sub-VLANs may not be assigned an IP address
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4
Which Switch 5500 model(s) does not support Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)?
A. Switch 5500-EI
B. Switch 5500-SI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
What is the result of the command boot boot-loader file-url?
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Exam A QUESTION 1
What is the most common Layer 2 method for handling multicast traffic?
A. DVMRP
B. PIM-SM/DM
C. IGMP Snooping
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which two features are supported on all Switch 8800 I/O modules? (Choose two.)
A. Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) interface for all Ethernet ports
B. IEEE 802.3ad Link Aggregation
C. Layer 2/ Layer 3 switch packet processing
D. Each interface module maintains its own routing and forwarding tables
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 3
Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
B. PoE upgradeable power supply unit
C. Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
D. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
E. Port-based VLANs
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 4
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: “An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity”?
A. Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)
B. XRN Interconnect
C. Distributed Device Management (DDM)
D. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
The Switch 5500 supports multiple runtime and configuration files in its flash file system.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
The Switch 5500 supports Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) V1, V2 and V3.
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Which three technologies can be used to provide a high level of network availability? (Choose three.)
A. Internet Group Membership Protocol (IGMP) Snooping
B. Virtual LAN-centric (VLAN-centric) network design
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
D. IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
E. eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)
F. Cut-through switching
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Match each Spanning Tree acronym with itsdefinition.
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3COM_CertifyMe 3M0-211_v2010-07-31_85q_By-Williams
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module
B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.
C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues “globally” across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority applications
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 5
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
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